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GARP 2016-FRR - Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series

Page: 5 / 12
Total 387 questions

What does Pillar 2 of the Basel II Accord focus on?

A.

Identifying risk-weighted assets for reputational risk

B.

Improving the transparency of the different types of banking risks

C.

Ensuring that the bank properly manages all of the risks it takes

D.

Ensuring that the bank has minimum levels of capital against market, credit, and operational risk

What do option deltas measure?

A.

The rate of change of the option value with respect to changes in volatility of the underlying instrument.

B.

The sensitivity of the option value to changes risk free interest rate.

C.

The rate of change of the option value with respect to changes in the price of the underlying instrument.

D.

The sensitivity of the option value to the passage of time.

A trader inadvertently booked a trade with incorrect information. A subsequent market move resulted in a profit for the bank. Why should the bank include this gain in its operational risk assessment process?

A.

To fully assess the impact of all operational risk events

B.

The bank should not include this event in its operational loss event data program as it is a market risk event

C.

It is an important input into the bank’s capital modeling process

D.

The bank should not include this event in its operational risk assessment process as it is not a loss event

If the yield on the 3-month risk free bonds issued by the U.S government is 0.5%, and the 3-month LIBOR rate is 2.5%, what is the TED spread?

A.

0.5%

B.

-2.0%

C.

2.0%

D.

3.0%

Present value of a basis point (PVBP) is one of the ways to quantify the risk of a bond, and it measures:

A.

The change in value of a bond when yields increase by 0.01%.

B.

The percentage change in bond price when yields change by 1 basis point.

C.

The present value of the future cash flows of a bond calculated at a yield equal to 1%.

D.

The percentage change in bond price when the yields change by 1%.

For which risk type did the Basel I Accord introduce regulatory guidelines for capital requirements?

A.

Market risk

B.

Credit risk

C.

Operational risk

D.

Liquidity risk

Which of the following statements defines Value-at-risk (VaR)?

A.

VaR is the worst possible loss on a financial instrument or a portfolio of financial instruments over a given time period.

B.

VaR is the minimum likely loss on a financial instrument or a portfolio of financial instruments with a given degree of probabilistic confidence.

C.

VaR is the maximum of past losses over a given period of time.

D.

VaR is the maximum likely loss on a financial instrument or a portfolio of financial instruments over a given time period with a given degree of probabilistic confidence.

A corporate bond gives a yield of 6%. A same maturity government bond yields 2%. The probability of the corporate bond defaulting is 2.5%. In case of default, investors expect to lose 60% of their investment. The risk premium in the credit spread is:

A.

1.5%

B.

4.5%

C.

2.5%

D.

0.5%

Which one of the following four statements about hedging is INCORRECT?

A.

Traders can hedge their risks by taking an appropriate position in the underlying instrument.

B.

Traders can hedge their portfolio risks by taking a position in a different instrument.

C.

For a fully hedged portfolio, any changes in markets prices will typically produce significant changes in the market value of the portfolio.

D.

A large number of hedge positions is generally required to match the underlying transaction completely.

Short-selling is typically associated with which of the following risks?

I. Potential for extreme losses

II. Risk associated with the availability of shares to borrow

III. Market behavior risk

IV. Liquidity risk

A.

I, II

B.

I, III

C.

II, III, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV