CompTIA 220-1201 - CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2026)

CompTIA A+ explains that Wi-Fi issues at the edges of a building are typically caused by weak signal coverage, not client configuration. The recommended solution is to add additional wireless access points (APs) or mesh extenders to expand coverage and eliminate dead zones.

Enabling 5GHz would worsen the problem because 5GHz has shorter range and penetrates walls less effectively than 2.4GHz. Flushing DNS affects name resolution, not wireless signal strength. Upgrading the NIC to Wi-Fi 6 improves maximum throughput but still depends on sufficient signal, which the user does not have.

Additional APs ensure strong signal-to-noise ratio, consistent throughput, and stable roaming all solutions emphasized in the A+ wireless troubleshooting section. Therefore, option D is the correct and CompTIA-aligned fix.

If a print spooler crashes specifically with one application and no issue occurs on other systems, the most likely root cause is a bug within that specific application. Restarting the spooler and reinstalling drivers resolves system-wide or hardware-related issues not app-specific failures. This indicates the application may be sending malformed print data.

Physical damage from dropping a tablet may often affect ports or connectors. Before taking deeper diagnostic or replacement steps, it ' s important to visually inspect the USB-C charging port for damage or debris. If the port is damaged, charging issues can occur regardless of battery health.

Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell), which is the standard protocol for secure remote administration of network devices such as switches, routers, firewalls, and Linux-based systems. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes knowing common ports and selecting secure management methods. SSH provides encrypted communication for both authentication and the session data, protecting usernames, passwords, and command output from being intercepted by packet sniffers. This makes it the preferred choice over older remote access methods.

In contrast, port 23 is Telnet, which is also used for remote terminal access but sends traffic in cleartext, making it insecure and generally discouraged in modern environments. Port 21 is FTP control traffic, used for file transfers and typically not secure unless paired with FTPS or replaced by SFTP (which actually runs over SSH on port 22). Port 25 is SMTP, used for sending email between mail servers and is unrelated to remote device management. Therefore, for secure remote access to a network device, SSH on port 22 is the correct answer.

RAID 1 is known as mirroring. It duplicates all data to both drives simultaneously, providing redundancy in the event of a single drive failure. CompTIA A+ teaches that RAID 1 is ideal when reliability is the priority and only two drives are available exactly matching this scenario.

RAID 0 offers no redundancy. RAID 5 requires three or more drives. RAID 10 requires four or more drives.

Since the workstation has only two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID configuration providing data protection and is heavily featured in CompTIA’s coverage of RAID technologies, their requirements, and their purposes in fault tolerance.

A Storage Area Network (SAN) is primarily used for data archiving and large-scale storage. SANs provide high-speed, block-level storage for enterprise environments.

Why Not A (PAN): Personal Area Networks are for connecting personal devices like phones and smartwatches.

Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Networks are for city-wide data communication, not storage.

Why Not D (LAN): Local Area Networks are for general connectivity, not dedicated storage.

Why Not WAN: Wide Area Networks are for connecting geographically dispersed networks, not storage.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network types and purposes​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Random BSODs (Blue Screen of Death), intermittent freezing, and degraded performance under load are common symptoms of failing or faulty RAM (Random Access Memory). Here ' s the reasoning:

RAM Module (Correct Answer):

Faulty or failing RAM can cause random BSODs due to memory errors when the system attempts to read or write to corrupted memory locations.

Intermittent freezing, especially under performance-intensive operations, can occur because the CPU relies heavily on RAM for active processing tasks.

Over time, heat generated during usage can exacerbate RAM instability, leading to progressively worse performance throughout the day.

Solution: The technician should run a memory diagnostic tool, such as Windows Memory Diagnostic or MemTest86, to confirm if the RAM is at fault.

Incorrect Options:

A. Video Card: A faulty video card can cause graphical glitches, screen artifacts, or crashes, but it is unlikely to cause system-wide performance degradation and random freezing under normal operations unless the issue is specific to GPU-intensive tasks (e.g., gaming or video rendering).

B. HDD: A failing hard drive can cause system slowdowns and freezing, but it typically produces other symptoms such as read/write errors, boot failures, or clicking sounds. HDD issues do not usually cause BSODs unless critical system files are corrupted.

D. TPM (Trusted Platform Module): A TPM is a hardware-based security module used for encryption and secure authentication. It does not affect performance or cause BSODs or freezing under normal operation.

Key Takeaway:

The symptoms described (random BSODs, intermittent freezing, and degraded performance under load) are most likely caused by faulty or failing RAM. Memory diagnostic tools should be used to confirm the issue.

C. Installing redundant PSUs (Power Supply Units):

Redundant PSUs provide fault tolerance by ensuring that if one power supply fails, another will take over seamlessly.

This is a cost-effective way to increase uptime while waiting for the UPSs to arrive.

Incorrect Options:

A. Purchasing backup generators: Generators are costly and are typically used for long-term outages, not as an immediate or cost-effective solution.

B. Increasing input voltage: This is not a practical solution to hardware failures or power issues.

D. Activating a hot site: A hot site is an expensive, fully operational backup facility that would not be a cost-effective solution for this scenario.

Key Takeaway: Installing redundant PSUs is a cost-effective way to balance uptime requirements in case of power or hardware failure.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation

CompTIA troubleshooting procedures emphasize confirming input source settings on the external display device.

Even if the HDMI cable is connected properly:

The projector must be set to the correct input source (HDMI 1, HDMI 2, etc.).

If the source is incorrect, the laptop will not display, even though the laptop output is functioning normally.

Since the projector is powered on, and the laptop is already set to “Duplicate,” and cables are good, the most likely cause is:

✔ The projector is set to the wrong input source.

This is a common real-world issue covered under " video and projector troubleshooting. "

Why the other answers are incorrect

A. Projector may support HDMI; this is not the “most likely.”

B. “Extend” is not required — “Duplicate” works for projectors.

C. A failed HDMI port is possible but not the most likely scenario.

Final Answer: D

Older motherboards use 20-pin connectors, while newer power supplies use 24-pin connectors. An adapter resolves the compatibility issue cost-effectively.

Why Not A (Adjust the input voltage): Input voltage adjustment is unrelated to connector compatibility.

Why Not B (Install a modular power supply): While modular supplies are versatile, this doesn’t address the connector issue directly.

Why Not C (Rebuild the failed power supply): Rebuilding is costly and complex compared to using an adapter.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply compatibility​.