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Symantec 250-580 - Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist

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Total 150 questions

Which antimalware intensity level is defined by the following: "Blocks files that are most certainly bad or potentially bad files results in a comparable number of false positives and false negatives."

A.

Level 6

B.

Level 5

C.

Level 2

D.

Level 1

What is the purpose of a Threat Defense for Active Directory Deceptive Account?

A.

It prevents attackers from reading the contents of the Domain Admins Group.

B.

It assigns a fake NTLM password hash value for users with an assigned AdminCount attribute.

C.

It exposes attackers as they seek to gather credential information from workstation memory.

D.

It acts as a honeypot to expose attackers as they attempt to build their AD treasure map

An Incident Responder has determined that an endpoint is compromised by a malicious threat. What SEDR feature would be utilized first to contain the threat?

A.

File Deletion

B.

Incident Manager

C.

Isolation

D.

Endpoint Activity Recorder

An administrator notices that some entries list that the Risk was partially removed. The administrator needs to determine whether additional steps are necessary to remediate the threat.

Where in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console can the administrator find additional information on the risk?

A.

Risk log

B.

Computer Status report

C.

Notifications

D.

Infected and At-Risk Computers report

A company uses a remote administration tool that is detected as Hacktool.KeyLoggPro and quarantined by Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP).

Which step can an administrator perform to continue using the remote administration tool without detection by SEP?

A.

Create a Tamper Protect exception for the tool

B.

Create an Application to Monitor exception for the tool

C.

Create a Known Risk exception for the tool

D.

Create a SONAR exception for the tool

Which type of security threat is used by attackers to exploit vulnerable applications?

A.

Lateral Movement

B.

Privilege Escalation

C.

Credential Access

D.

Command and Control

What tool can administrators use to create custom behavioral isolation policies based on collected application behavior data?

A.

Behavioral Prevalence Check

B.

Behavioral Heat Map

C.

Application Catalog

D.

Application Frequency Map

Where in the Attack Chain does Threat Defense for Active Directory provide protection?

A.

Attack Surface Reduction

B.

Attack Prevention

C.

Detection and Response

D.

Breach Prevention

What prevention technique does Threat Defense for Active Directory use to expose attackers?

A.

Process Monitoring

B.

Obfuscation

C.

Honeypot Traps

D.

Packet Tracing

What protection technology should an administrator enable to prevent double executable file names of ransomware variants like Cryptolocker from running?

A.

Download Insight

B.

Intrusion Prevention System

C.

SONAR

D.

Memory Exploit Mitigation