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ISC CISSP - Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)

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Total 1486 questions

Which of the following addresses requirements of security assessment during software acquisition?

A.

Software assurance policy

B.

Continuous monitoring

C.

Software configuration management (SCM)

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP) policy

Which of the following is the MOST effective strategy to prevent an attacker from disabling a network?

A.

Test business continuity and disaster recovery (DR) plans.

B.

Design networks with the ability to adapt, reconfigure, and fail over.

C.

Implement network segmentation to achieve robustness.

D.

Follow security guidelines to prevent unauthorized network access.

A colleague who recently left the organization asked a security professional for a copy of the organization's confidential incident management policy. Which of the following

is the BEST response to this request?

A.

Email the policy to the colleague as they were already part of the organization and familiar with it.

B.

Do not acknowledge receiving the request from the former colleague and ignore them.

C.

Access the policy on a company-issued device and let the former colleague view the screen.

D.

Submit the request using company official channels to ensure the policy is okay to distribute.

In systems security engineering, what does the security principle of modularity provide?

A.

Documentation of functions

B.

Isolated functions and data

C.

Secure distribution of programs and data

D.

Minimal access to perform a function

Why are packet filtering routers used in low-risk environments?

A.

They are high-resolution source discrimination and identification tools.

B.

They are fast and flexible, and protect against Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing.

C.

They are fast, flexible, and transparent.

D.

They enforce strong user authentication and audit tog generation.

A hospital has allowed virtual private networking (VPN) access to remote database developers. Upon auditing the internal firewall configuration, the network administrator

discovered that split-tunneling was enabled. What is the concern with this configuration?

A.

Remote sessions will not require multi-layer authentication.

B.

Remote clients are permitted to exchange traffic with the public and private network.

C.

Multiple Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) tunnels may be exploitable in specific circumstances.

D.

The network intrusion detection system (NIDS) will fail to inspect Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) traffic.

In an environment where there is not full administrative control over all network connected endpoints, such as a university where non-corporate devices are used, what is

the BEST way to restrict access to the network?

A.

Use switch port security to limit devices connected to a particular switch port.

B.

Use of virtual local area networks (VLAN) to segregate users.

C.

Use a client-based Network Access Control (NAC) solution.

D.

Use a clientless Network Access Control (NAC) solution

Which of the following BEST describes the standard used to exchange authorization information between different identity management systems?

A.

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

B.

Service Oriented Architecture (SOA)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Wireless Authentication Protocol (WAP)

Which of the following BEST describes when an organization should conduct a black box security audit on a new software product?

A.

When the organization wishes to check for non-functional compliance

B.

When the organization wants to enumerate known security vulnerabilities across their infrastructure

C.

When the organization has experienced a security incident

D.

When the organization is confident the final source code is complete

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate technique for destroying magnetic platter style hard disk drives (HDD) containing data with a "HIGH" security categorization?

A.

Drill through the device and platters.

B.

Mechanically shred the entire HDD.

C.

Remove the control electronics.

D.

HP iProcess the HDD through a degaussing device.

Which of the following examples is BEST to minimize the attack surface for a customer's private information?

A.

Obfuscation

B.

Collection limitation

C.

Authentication

D.

Data masking

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for selecting the appropriate level of detail for audit record generation?

A.

Lower costs throughout the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

B.

Facilitate a root cause analysis (RCA)

C.

Enable generation of corrective action reports

D.

Avoid lengthy audit reports

What is the FIRST step prior to executing a test of an organisation’s disaster recovery (DR) or business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

identify key stakeholders,

B.

Develop recommendations for disaster scenarios.

C.

Identify potential failure points.

D.

Develop clear evaluation criteria.

An organization has a short-term agreement with a public Cloud Service Provider

(CSP). Which of the following BEST protects sensitive data once the agreement

expires and the assets are reused?

A.

Recommended that the business data owners use continuous monitoring and analysis of applications to prevent data loss.

B.

Recommend that the business data owners use internal encryption keys for data-at-rest and data-in-transit to the storage environment.

C.

Use a contractual agreement to ensure the CSP wipes the data from the storage environment.

D.

Use a National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) recommendation for wiping data on the storage environment.

What should be the FIRST action for a security administrator who detects an intrusion on the network based on precursors and other indicators?

A.

Isolate and contain the intrusion.

B.

Notify system and application owners.

C.

Apply patches to the Operating Systems (OS).

D.

Document and verify the intrusion.