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APICS CPIM-8.0 - Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0)

Page: 10 / 13
Total 606 questions

Which of the following threats MUST be included while conducting threat modeling for a Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

A.

Risks of data breaches that can result from inadequate encryption of tenant data in transit and at rest

B.

Potential legal actions from third parties due to tenants’ activities on the CSP’s platform

C.

Vulnerabilities in shared resources that can be exploited by attackers to affect multiple tenants

D.

Threats originating from the CSP’s tenants that can impact the infrastructure and other tenants

Which is the MOST valid statement around the relationship of security and privacy?

A.

A system designed with security provides individuals with data privacy by default.

B.

Nonrepudiation protects against unauthorized disclosure of private data.

C.

Privacy in the realm of physical security often entails trade-offs with security.

D.

Privacy and security are mutually exclusive.

The question below is based on the following alternative schedules for a lot of 1,200.

A company works 8-hour, single-shift days. Setups are 4 hours for Operation 20 and 4 hours for Operation 40. Each operation has multiple machines available.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

Operation overlapping results in reduced total setup costs.

B.

Operation overlapping results in reduced total span time.

C.

Lot splitting results in the shortest overall lead time.

D.

Lot splitting results in reduced total setup costs.

Which of the following is a threat modeling methodology used for accessing threats against applications and Operating Systems (OS)?

A.

Basically Available, Soft-State, Eventual-Consistency (BASE)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation Of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT)

D.

Security, Trust, Assurance And Risk (STAR)

The most relevant measure of customer service performance Is:

A.

service perceived by the customer against service expected by the customer.

B.

service promised to the customer against service measured by the supplier.

C.

customer complaints received as a percentage of orders shipped.

D.

positive customer feedback as a percentage of customer feedback.

Which of the following statements is an advantage of a fourth-party logistics (4PL) provider?

A.

It coordinates between the client and multiple logistics suppliers.

B.

It focuses primarily on last-mile delivery.

C.

It allows the client to concentrate on operating its own warehouse.

D.

It provides a logistics specialist who manages some of the logistics operation.

Small, independent demands for components and subassemblies typically arise from which of the following sources?

A.

Warehouse orders

B.

Repair and service requirements

C.

Original equipment manufacturers

D.

Scrap allowance

Which of the following presents the GREATEST benefit to an organization ' s security posture when a change management process is implemented?

A.

Accuracy of Key Risk Indicators (KRI) reported to senior management

B.

Ensure the integrity of the organization ' s assets

C.

Backups being completed in a timely manner

D.

Accuracy of Key Performance Indicators (KPI) reported to senior management

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

A.

6

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

An employee returns a borrowed laptop used for lab testing. What is the BEST action the technician should perform upon receiving the laptop to ensure no sensitive information will be exposed?

A.

Delete all the files.

B.

Purge the hard drive.

C.

Encrypt the hard drive.

D.

Degauss the hard drive.

If all other factors remain the same, when finished goods inventory investment is increased, service levels typically will:

A.

remain the same.

B.

increase in direct (linear) proportion.

C.

increase at a decreasing rate.

D.

increase at an increasing rate.

A security consultant is recommending the implementation of a security-focused Configuration Management (CM) process in an organization. What would be the BEST benefit the security consultant would include in the recommendation?

A.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with existing security requirements of the organization.

B.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with regulatory requirements placed on an organization.

C.

Security-focused CM surpasses existing security requirements of the organization.

D.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with best practices derived from industry frameworks.

A security engineer is responsible for verifying software reliability prior to commercial deployment. Which of the following factor would BEST be verified to ensure that the software stays reliable?

A.

Monitoring

B.

Web Application Firewall (WAF)

C.

Content Delivery Network (CDN)

D.

Logging

Which of the following Secure Shell (SSH) remote access practices is MOST suited for scripted functions?

A.

Requiring Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

B.

Using public key-based authentication method

C.

Restricting authentication by Internet Protocol (IP) address

D.

Implementing access credentials management tools

What is the FIRST element that must be evaluated in a security governance program?

A.

An organization’s business objectives and strategy

B.

Review of Information Technology (IT) and technical controls

C.

Review of organization’s Information Technology (IT) security policies

D.

An organization’s utilization of resources