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Isaca CRISC - Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control

Page: 7 / 11
Total 1641 questions

An organization has initiated a project to implement an IT risk management program for the first time. The BEST time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when:

A.

identifying risk scenarios.

B.

determining the risk strategy.

C.

calculating impact and likelihood.

D.

completing the controls catalog.

Which of the following shortcomings of perimeter security does Zero Trust aim to resolve?

A.

Lack of access verification for systems on the internal network

B.

Identification and authentication failures for users

C.

Poorly configured firewall rules introducing security breaches

D.

Ineffective load balancing on network devices

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input to determine risk tolerance?

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Organizational objectives

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk management costs

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?

A.

Occurrences of specific events

B.

A performance measurement

C.

The risk tolerance level

D.

Risk scenarios

Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?

A.

Data protection officer

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Information asset custodian

D.

Information asset owner

For a large software development project, risk assessments are MOST effective when performed:

A.

before system development begins.

B.

at system development.

C.

at each stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

during the development of the business case.

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine software license compliance?

A.

List non-compliant systems in the risk register.

B.

Conduct periodic compliance reviews.

C.

Review whistleblower reports of noncompliance.

D.

Monitor user software download activity.

Which of the following is a responsibility of the second line of defense in the three lines of defense model?

A.

Performing duties independently to provide assurance

B.

Alerting operational management to emerging issues

C.

Implementing corrective actions to address deficiencies

D.

Owning risk scenarios and bearing the consequences of loss

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Fiscal management practices

B.

Business maturity

C.

Budget for implementing security

D.

Management culture

A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?

A.

An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks

B.

An increase in attempted website phishing attacks

C.

A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities

Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization's cloud computing environment against leading practices?

A.

The cloud environment's capability maturity model

B.

The cloud environment's risk register

C.

The cloud computing architecture

D.

The organization's strategic plans for cloud computing

The PRIMARY objective for selecting risk response options is to:

A.

reduce risk 10 an acceptable level.

B.

identify compensating controls.

C.

minimize residual risk.

D.

reduce risk factors.

Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of employees unintentionally disclosing sensitive information to outside parties?

A.

Regular employee security awareness training

B.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

C.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?

A.

Documenting system hardening requirements

B.

Minimizing dependency on technology

C.

Aligning with a security architecture

D.

Establishing configuration guidelines

Which of the following BEST enables the development of a successful IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation?

A.

Providing risk awareness training for business units

B.

Obtaining input from business management

C.

Understanding the business controls currently in place

D.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?

A.

The business case for the use of loT

B.

The loT threat landscape

C.

Policy development for loT

D.

The network that loT devices can access

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of a control owner?

A.

To make risk-based decisions and own losses

B.

To ensure implemented controls mitigate risk

C.

To approve deviations from controls

D.

To design controls that will eliminate risk

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's existing controls?

A.

Senior management has approved the control design.

B.

Inherent risk has been reduced from original levels.

C.

Residual risk remains within acceptable levels.

D.

Costs for control maintenance are reasonable.

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

A.

Organization's information security manager

B.

Organization's risk function

C.

Service provider's IT management

D.

Service provider's information security manager

Which of the following events is MOST likely to trigger the need to conduct a risk assessment?

A.

An incident resulting in data loss

B.

Changes in executive management

C.

Updates to the information security policy

D.

Introduction of a new product line

Which of the following BEST mitigates ethical risk?

A.

Ethics committees

B.

Contingency scenarios

C.

Awareness of consequences for violations

D.

Routine changes in senior management

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?

A.

impact due to failure of control

B.

Frequency of failure of control

C.

Contingency plan for residual risk

D.

Cost-benefit analysis of automation

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?

A.

Implement a replacement control.

B.

Adjust residual risk rating.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Review compensating controls.

Mapping open risk issues to an enterprise risk heat map BEST facilitates:

A.

risk response.

B.

control monitoring.

C.

risk identification.

D.

risk ownership.

An organization's IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.

B.

Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.

C.

Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.

D.

Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risk and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for monitoring activities performed in a production database environment?

A.

Ensuring that database changes are correctly applied

B.

Enforcing that changes are authorized

C.

Deterring illicit actions of database administrators

D.

Preventing system developers from accessing production data

Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?

A.

Risk manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Control tester

D.

Risk owner

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.

B.

Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.

C.

Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.

D.

Obtain certification to a global information security standard.

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

Which of the following would be- MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization's current risk profile?

A.

Hire consultants specializing m the new technology.

B.

Review existing risk mitigation controls.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a risk assessment.

Which of the following methods would BEST contribute to identifying obscure risk scenarios?

A.

Brainstorming sessions

B.

Control self-assessments

C.

Vulnerability analysis

D.

Monte Carlo analysis

For no apparent reason, the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold. Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST?

A.

Temporarily increase the risk threshold.

B.

Suspend processing to investigate the problem.

C.

Initiate a feasibility study for a new application.

D.

Conduct a root-cause analysis.

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider's control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider's control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on theorganization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?

A.

Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.

B.

Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.

C.

Use a secure channel to transmit the files.

D.

Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?

A.

User authorization

B.

User recertification

C.

Change log review

D.

Access log monitoring

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?

A.

Customized regional training on local laws and regulations

B.

Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions

C.

Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture

D.

Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers

Which of the following can be affected by the cost of risk mitigation alternatives?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk factors

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Current risk rating

What is a risk practitioner's BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?

A.

Create an asset valuation report.

B.

Create key performance indicators (KPls).

C.

Create key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Create a risk volatility report.

From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:

A.

solution delivery.

B.

resource utilization.

C.

strategic alignment.

D.

performance evaluation.