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OCEG GRCP - GRC Professional Certification Exam

Page: 6 / 8
Total 249 questions

How does Benchmarking contribute to the improvement of a capability?

A.

By identifying potential legal and regulatory issues.

B.

By comparing the capability's performance to industry standards or best practices.

C.

By assessing the impact of organizational culture.

D.

By evaluating the effectiveness of risk management campaigns.

What is the process of validating direction within an organization?

A.

Conducting a SWOT analysis to identify the organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

B.

Communicating, negotiating, and finalizing direction with other organizational levels/units.

C.

Conducting a comprehensive audit of the organization’s financial records to ensure they are showing movement in the right direction.

D.

Implementing a performance management system to evaluate employee performance and alignment to established direction.

What type of incentives are established through compensation, reward, and recognition programs?

A.

Social Incentives

B.

Economic Incentives

C.

Management Incentives

D.

Individualized Incentives

Why is it important for an organization to sense and analyze changes in context within the LEARN component?

A.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s risk management framework

B.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements related to governance and risk management

C.

To ensure that the organization’s financial statements are accurate and up to date

D.

To determine necessary changes to the organization and to understand which changes are significant and which are distractions

In the Maturity Model, which level indicates that practices are evaluated and managed with data-driven evidence?

A.

Level 1 – Initial

B.

Level 2 – Managed

C.

Level 3 – Consistent

D.

Level 4 – Measured

What does it mean for an organization's GRC practices to be at Level 3 in the Maturity Model?

A.

Practices are formally documented and consistently managed, ensuring that the team follows documented practices and maintains learner records

B.

Practices are measured and managed with data-driven evidence, generating enough data and indicators to judge the effectiveness

C.

Practices are consistently improved over time, with the team demonstrating continuous improvement in GRC capabilities

D.

Practices are improvised, ad hoc, and often chaotic, with no formal documentation but they are similar in design

What is the primary responsibility of the Fourth Line in the Lines of Accountability Model?

A.

The Fourth Line, which is the Procurement Department, is responsible for managing vendor relationships and procurement processes.

B.

The Fourth Line, which is the HR department, is responsible for providing training and development opportunities to employees.

C.

The Fourth Line, which is the Compliance Department, is responsible for establishing actions and controls to address regulatory and policy requirements.

D.

The Fourth Line, which is the Executive Team, is accountable and responsible for organization-wide performance, risk, and compliance.

What are the three orientations of actions and controls in the PERFORM component?

A.

Short-term, medium-term, and long-term orientations

B.

Financial, operational, and reputational orientations

C.

Management, governance, and assurance orientations

D.

Strategic, operational, and tactical orientations

How do GRC Professionals apply the concept of ‘maturity’ in the GRC Capability Model?

A.

GRC Professionals apply maturity only to the highest level of the GRC Capability Model.

B.

GRC Professionals apply maturity at all levels of the GRC Capability Model to assess preparedness to perform practices and support continuous improvement.

C.

GRC Professionals use maturity to evaluate the performance of individual employees.

D.

GRC Professionals use maturity to determine the budget allocation for GRC programs.

What should be avoided to maintain the integrity of the inquiry process?

A.

Any inquiries that require identification of the respondent

B.

Any automated analysis of information and findings

C.

Any actual or perceived connection between inquiry responses and individual performance appraisals

D.

Any use of technology-based inquiry methods