Fortinet NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 - Fortinet NSE 6 - FortiEDR 7.0 Administrator

The correct answers are C and D .

The guide states that for eXtended Detection Source integration, FortiEDR connects to external systems to collect activity logs. The aggregated data is then sent to Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) , where it is correlated and analyzed to detect malicious indications. Those malicious indications result in security events for eXtended Detection policy rule violations .

For FortiAnalyzer/FortiAnalyzer Cloud specifically, the guide states that this integration is used to correlate data between FortiEDR and the Fortinet Security Fabric and issue eXtended Detection alerts .

Option A is wrong because FCS does not send the original log record to FortiAnalyzer. FortiAnalyzer is the external source whose data is correlated with FortiEDR data. Option B is wrong because OS metadata is collected by the Collector and handled through FortiEDR components; the FCS role here is cloud-side enrichment, correlation, and detection, not sending OS metadata back to the manager.

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The correct answer is D .

The FortiEDR guide confirms that Playbook actions are automatic incident response actions configured under Security Settings > Playbooks and applied based on security event classification. It also confirms that actions such as Terminate Process and device isolation actions can be configured as playbook responses. For scheduled-query-triggered events, the guide states that FortiEDR can automatically apply the Playbook action assigned to the Collector Group that the triggering device belongs to.

For isolation, the guide shows that isolation actions such as Isolate device with NAC are configured under the Investigation section of Playbooks, and similar isolation actions are triggered automatically when selected for the relevant classification.

The uploaded guide does not provide a specific line saying “if terminate process fails, continue to the next action.” Based on FortiEDR playbook behavior, configured actions are executed independently. A failure to terminate a protected Windows process does not automatically cancel the remaining playbook actions. Therefore, the next configured action, isolate device , is still executed.

Options A , B , and C are wrong because the playbook does not pause for administrator intervention, does not stop merely because an email is generated, and does not cancel all remaining configured actions because one action failed.

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The correct answers are B and D .

The exhibit shows a Process Creation activity event where cmd.exe is the source process and PING.EXE is the target process. The displayed Executing user is R2D2-KVM63\fortinet, and the command line shows fortinet.com, which means the user fortinet executed a ping command targeting fortinet.com.

The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting activity events consist of a source , an action , and a target . It also states that Process Actions have another process as the target and include process-related actions such as Process Creation .

The exhibit also shows file-related details for the executable, including the executable path, product, SHA1 hash, and command line. In FortiEDR Threat Hunting, process execution events are tied to executable-file metadata, so the event is associated with the executable file involved in the process action. This supports B in the exam’s intended wording.

Option A is not reliable because the screenshot does not prove MITRE details are unavailable; it only shows that no MITRE detail is visible in the current portion of the details pane. The guide states that MITRE indications appear when an activity event has related MITRE information.

Option C is wrong because the screenshot shows the process status as Running and does not show a block indicator. A green check does not mean blocked; it indicates a trusted/signed/allowed status context. There is no evidence that PING.EXE was blocked.

Add applications to the application control manager.

Assign collector groups to the policy.

Enable the blocklist rule on the application control policy.

“The applications must be added to the Application Control Manager under the user-defined group”

“Collector groups must be assigned to this policy”

“The blocklist rule must be enabled on the Application Control Policy.”

The correct sequence is to add applications to Application Control Manager, assign the relevant Collector Groups to the Application Control policy, and enable the blocklist rule. Application Control prevents designated executables from launching, whereas Communication Control regulates outbound application communication. FortiEDR automatically places manually added applications in its User-defined group, so creating a separate application group is unnecessary. Collector Groups receive policy assignments directly; application groups are not assigned to individual Collectors. Newly added applications are disabled by default and must also be enabled for blocking, unless the administrator has changed the default application state.

The correct answer is D .

The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that FortiEDR displays two severity ratings for applications: NIST Severity and ACI Severity . NIST Severity is based on FortiEDR’s vulnerability scoring system using the NIST Cybersecurity Framework. ACI Severity, however, is Adversary Centric Intelligence provided by FortiRecon and FortiGuard Threat Analysts, covering dark web, open-source, and technical threat intelligence, including threat actor insights . This helps administrators proactively assess risk, respond faster to incidents, understand attackers, and protect assets.

The guide also states that FortiEDR helps analysts prioritize alerts and incidents using risk factors such as severity of vulnerabilities , relevance of threat intelligence feeds , and severity of affected endpoints , so effort is focused on the most significant organizational risks.

Therefore, the application with Medium NIST severity but active ACI evidence of adversary targeting should be prioritized over an application with Critical NIST severity but Unknown ACI rating , because active adversary-centric intelligence indicates current attacker interest or exploitation relevance. In plain terms: a theoretical critical vulnerability matters, but an actively targeted vulnerability is the fire you put out first.

Option B is tempting but incomplete because it relies only on NIST/CVSS severity. FortiEDR’s ACI rating exists specifically to add adversary context to prioritization. Option A is wrong because FortiEDR does not treat all vulnerable applications equally. Option C is wrong because asset criticality can matter, but the guide does not say prioritization depends only on asset criticality.

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The correct answers are C and D .

The exhibit shows an exception created/updated by FortinetCloudServices after the file Update.exe was classified as Good . This aligns with the FortiEDR Cloud Service behavior described in the guide. The guide states that once FCS is connected, it can enable Tuning , which means automated security event exception/allowlisting. After a triggered security event is reclassified as Safe, an automated cross-environment exception can be pushed downstream and the event expires, preventing it from triggering again.

Option C is correct because the Event Exceptions window includes Triggered Rules , and the guide states that when editing an exception, the administrator can modify the Collector Groups , Destinations , Users , and the pairs of rules and processes that define the exception in the Triggered Rules area.

Option D is the Fortinet/FCS-related statement supported by the guide’s FCS behavior. The guide says FCS can enable follow-up actions, including Tuning through automated exceptions and Playbook Actions , and that playbook policy remediation actions are based on the final FCS determination.

Option A is wrong because the exhibit explicitly states “All the Raw Data Items are covered.” A partial exception would mean not all raw data items are covered. The guide explains that if an exception does not cover all raw data items, FortiEDR displays a different indicator and distinguishes covered from non-covered raw data items.

Option B is wrong because the exception scope in the exhibit is set to All groups , All destinations , and All users . The comment references device C8092231196, but that is not the same as saying the exception applies only to that device.

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The correct answers are B and C .

The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that IoT device discovery continuously identifies newly connected non-workstation devices, such as printers, cameras, and media devices. During discovery, each relevant Collector periodically probes nearby neighboring devices. The guide states that nearby devices usually respond by providing information about themselves, including the device/host name and IP address . This directly supports option B .

Option C is also correct because the guide states that Collectors in degraded , disabled , or isolated states do not take part in the IoT probing process. It also says FortiEDR uses the most powerful Collectors in each subnet and excludes weaker Collectors, including disabled and degraded Collectors.

Option A is wrong because the guide explicitly says Collectors running on servers do not take part in IoT probing. Option D is wrong because IoT probing is not described as deep packet inspection of all neighboring traffic; it is a discovery/probing process used to identify nearby devices and collect basic device information.

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The correct answer is A. Core.

For FortiAnalyzer / FortiAnalyzer Cloud integration, the FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that one prerequisite is “A Jumpbox with connectivity to FortiAnalyzer.” The same section says to refer to Setting up the FortiEDR Core for details about installing a FortiEDR Core and configuring it as a Jumpbox. In the connector configuration, the guide also states that the Jumpbox field is used to select the FortiEDR Jumpbox that will communicate with FortiAnalyzer or FortiAnalyzer Cloud.

So, the FortiEDR component associated with JumpBox capability is the Core. The Central Manager must have connectivity to Fortinet Cloud Services, but it is not the component configured as the JumpBox. The Aggregator handles registration, configuration, and monitoring between Collectors/Cores and Central Manager, and the Reputation Server is unrelated to FortiAnalyzer JumpBox communication in this context.

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The correct answer is B .

In the exhibit, the incident status clearly shows Unhandled at the incident level and also on the event rows. The FortiEDR guide explains that every detected security event is initially marked as unread and unhandled , and these statuses help multiple FortiEDR Central Manager users track whether anyone has read and handled the message.

The guide also states that when a FortiEDR Central Manager user marks a security event as Handled , all users see it as handled. The process is performed by selecting the event and clicking Handle Incident or the flag icon, then saving the incident handling details.

So the valid observation from the exhibit is that the incident has not been handled by a console administrator .

Option A is not supported by the exhibit. There is no visible evidence that the policy is in Simulation mode. Option C is wrong because the incident is still visible, not archived or deleted. Option D is wrong because the status is explicitly Unhandled ; it was not handled automatically by a Communication Control policy.

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