FINRA SIE - Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE)

Step by Step Explanation:

Prohibition on Signing Customer Names: It is never permissible to sign a customer's name without written authorization (POA) due to legal and ethical concerns. Unauthorized signing constitutes forgery and violates FINRA rules.

Incorrect Options:

A: Firm principal approval does not override this prohibition.

B: Verbal authorization is insufficient.

C: Discretionary authority does not allow unauthorized signing.

References:

FINRA Rule 4512 (Customer Account Information): FINRA Rule 4512.

The Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) protects customers if a broker-dealer fails due to insolvency. Coverage applies to cash and securities in customer accounts, up to $500,000total, including $250,000 for cash.

A is correctbecause SIPC’s purpose is to protect against losses arising from a broker-dealer’s insolvency.

Bis incorrect because SIPC does not guarantee investment performance.

Cis incorrect because SIPC does not cover market losses.

Dis incorrect because futures contracts are not covered under SIPC.

Step by Step Explanation:

Tenants in Common: In this arrangement, each tenant owns a fractional interest in the account's assets, which can be unequal depending on the agreement.

Income Distribution: Income is distributed based on ownership percentage, not necessarily equally.

Redemption Requests: Only the owner of the fractional interest has authority to request redemption for their portion.

Estate Taxation: Upon the death of a tenant, only their fractional interest is taxable in their estate.

References:

FINRA Guidelines on Joint Accounts: FINRA Joint Accounts.

A secondary market transaction occurs when securities are bought and sold between investors, typically on an exchange.

C is correctbecause securities purchased on a registered exchange are secondary market transactions.

Ais incorrect as open-end mutual fund shares are purchased directly from the issuer.

Brefers to the primary market.

Dis also incorrect as private placements occur in the primary market.

Step by Step Explanation:

Turnover Ratio: Indicates how frequently the fund manager buys and sells securities. A high turnover ratio may result in higher capital gains distributions, impacting tax efficiency.

Incorrect Options:

B: Sales charges affect cost but not tax efficiency.

C: Commission details are unrelated to the fund’s tax efficiency.

D: Projections of distributions are speculative and not disclosed under regulations.

References:

SEC Mutual Fund Guide: SEC Mutual Funds.

A FINRA member is a broker-dealer that is registered with FINRA and regulated by a national securities association. Individuals employed by the member firm (e.g., registered representatives) are associated persons, not members themselves.

D is correctbecause FINRA membership applies to broker-dealers, not individuals.

A,B, andCare incorrect because they refer to individuals or roles within member firms, not the firms themselves.

Step by Step Explanation:

Securitization: The process of pooling financial assets, such as mortgage loans, and creating asset-backed securities that investors can buy.

Incorrect Options:

B: Hypothecation refers to pledging assets as collateral.

C & D: Loan and claim processing are administrative terms, not related to the creation of securities.

References:

SEC Guidance on Asset-Backed Securities: SEC ABS Info.

Step by Step Explanation:

Debentures: Corporate bonds not backed by physical assets or collateral. They rely on the issuer’s creditworthiness.

Incorrect Options:

B: Trust certificates are a legacy term for bonds backed by a trust.

C: Collateral trust bonds are secured by financial assets.

D: GO bonds are issued by municipalities, not corporations.

References:

SEC Guide on Corporate Bonds:SEC Corporate Bonds.

High-income bond mutual funds typically invest in lower-rated (junk) bonds that offer higher yields. These bonds are exposed to significant credit risk, as issuers may default on their payments.

A is correctbecause credit risk is the primary concern with high-yield bonds.

Bis incorrect as political risk is more relevant for international investments.

Cis incorrect because taxability risk is not specific to bond mutual funds.

Dis incorrect because purchasing power risk is more relevant for fixed-income investments during inflationary periods but is not the primary risk here.

Step by Step Explanation:

Nonpublic Information: A customer’s net worth is nonpublic personal information that requires confidentiality under Regulation S-P.

Incorrect Options:

A, B, and D: Names, addresses, and phone numbers may be public unless linked to specific financial or personal details.

References:

SEC Regulation S-P (Privacy of Consumer Financial Information): SEC Regulation S-P.