CompTIA 220-1202 - CompTIA A+ Core 2 (2026 Exam Update)

The correct answer is A. .app, because macOS applications packaged as .app files are typically self-contained application bundles. This means that all required application files are stored within a single directory that appears as one file in Finder. When the .app file is moved to the Trash, the application is effectively removed from the system.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, macOS applications are commonly distributed as .app bundles, allowing for simple installation and removal. This design contrasts with Windows, where applications often install files across multiple directories and require uninstallers.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that dragging a .app file to the Trash is generally sufficient to uninstall the software, although some applications may leave behind preference files or caches. However, from an exam perspective, .app is the only option that supports this uninstall behavior.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that .msi and .exe are Windows formats, .rpm is used by Linux package managers, and .pkg installers often install system-wide components that require a formal uninstallation process.

Because .app files support simple drag-to-trash uninstallation, A is the correct answer.

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) for users who connect and use a network service.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“RADIUS is a widely used protocol for implementing AAA in network environments, allowing centralized control over user access and accounting.”

An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users may connect to it, giving attackers the opportunity to intercept traffic, steal credentials, or install malware. The evil twin often uses the same SSID as the real network to fool users.

A. Stalkerware is spyware installed to track user activity, typically on personal devices.

C. Tailgating is a physical security breach involving unauthorized entry behind someone with access.

D. Shoulder surfing involves observing a person entering confidential data, such as PINs or passwords.

Linux commonly uses Linux-native filesystems (such as ext4, XFS, BTRFS, and others). The All-in-One Exam Guide explicitly states: “Linux users have lots to choose from; most use ext4, but you will see others with names like BTRFS, XFS, ZFS, and so on.” That directly links XFS to Linux.

By contrast, the same source identifies NTFS, FAT32, and exFAT as Windows file systems, with exFAT mainly for removable media, showing that FAT32/NTFS are primarily Windows-associated in A+ context. Quentin Docter also explains Linux’s ext-family filesystems (ext3/ext4) as Linux defaults in many distributions, reinforcing that Linux has its own native filesystem ecosystem rather than using NTFS/APFS as its typical format.

APFS is Apple’s filesystem for macOS/iOS devices, not Linux. FAT32 is cross-platform but not “typically associated” with Linux as a primary filesystem. Therefore, XFS (B) is the best answer.

The correct answer is D. Enabling HTTPS-Only Mode, because HTTPS ensures that all communication between the browser and websites is encrypted using TLS (Transport Layer Security). This protects sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and payment details from interception.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, HTTPS encrypts data in transit, preventing attackers from eavesdropping or modifying communications. HTTPS-only modes in modern browsers block or warn users when a site does not support secure connections.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that HTTPS is essential for protecting authentication credentials and financial information, especially on public or untrusted networks. Enforcing HTTPS-only connections ensures users cannot accidentally submit data over unencrypted HTTP.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that disabling cookies or JavaScript may break website functionality but does not guarantee encryption. Pop-up blockers address nuisance behavior, not data security.

Because the objective is to encrypt browser communications and protect sensitive data, enabling HTTPS-Only Mode is the most effective and direct solution, making D the correct answer.

Among the options, threat (end-user) education most directly addresses both preventing malware installation and preventing accidental disclosure of sensitive information, because it changes user behavior—the number one target of many attacks. Quentin Docter emphasizes: “By far the best prevention of security threats is the education of your end users regarding common threats,” explaining that the most effective method is teaching users not to open suspicious files and to open only those they’re reasonably sure are malware-free. Docter adds that trained users can better identify Trojans and phishing scams and should also learn guidelines for protecting sensitive information and recognizing social engineering threats.

Docter also states clearly that even when antimalware tools exist, “user education is much more effective” in preventing certain notification-based and trick-based malware installs. While Secure Boot, firewalls, and email gateways are valuable technical controls, they don’t cover the broad human-risk dimension of both malware installs and sensitive data disclosure as effectively as education/training. Hence B is correct.

The correct answer is C. Windows Server 2022, because Windows Server editions are specifically designed to run server workloads, such as file services, Active Directory, DNS, DHCP, virtualization, and application hosting.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Windows Server operating systems differ significantly from desktop versions. They support server roles, higher hardware limits, and enterprise features not available in client editions.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that Windows 10 Enterprise and Windows 11 Pro are client operating systems intended for end-user workstations. While they can connect to servers, they are not designed to function as servers themselves.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that version identifiers like 22H2 represent feature updates for Windows client operating systems, not standalone server products.

Because the question asks which version would most likely be installed on a server, the correct choice is Windows Server 2022, making C the correct answer.

The correct answer is D. Chain of custody process, because chain of custody ensures that evidence collected during an incident response is tracked, preserved, and legally defensible. It documents who collected the evidence, when it was collected, how it was stored, and who accessed it throughout the investigation.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, chain of custody is essential when evidence may be used in disciplinary actions, audits, or legal proceedings. Any gap in documentation can render evidence inadmissible.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that chain of custody provides accountability and prevents claims of evidence tampering. Each transfer of evidence must be logged and verified.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that while order of volatility determines the sequence of data collection, it does not track ownership or handling. Data integrity best practices ensure evidence is not altered, but they do not provide a record of custody.

Because the question focuses on handling and accountability, the required process is chain of custody, making D the correct answer.

The question asks where to find ownership and business criticality details for a server. That type of “who owns it, what does it support, and how important is it” data is maintained in a Configuration Management Database (CMDB) as part of configuration/asset management. Quentin Docter discusses asset management as lifecycle tracking and emphasizes accountability, including assigning responsibility and tracking who is associated with assets.

The All-in-One guide similarly describes asset management databases as tracking details such as “who has the asset,” “what type of asset,” and “where this asset is located,” which supports the idea that ownership and operational relevance are stored in such systems.

An SLA defines service expectations, an SOP defines procedures, and an EULA covers licensing—none are intended to be the authoritative inventory/ownership record for a specific server. Therefore, CMDB is the correct answer.

If internal resources (such as intranet or internal apps) can ' t be accessed but external sites work, this often points to aDNS issue, where the system isn ' t resolving internal domain names correctly.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When internet access is functional but internal sites fail to load, the issue usually lies with DNS resolution. Internal resources often require internal DNS servers, which may not be configured correctly.”