AAPC CPC - Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam

Anesthesia CPT®:

00120 – Anesthesia for ear procedures

AD modifier:

Anesthesiologist medically directing >4 CRNAs

P3 – Severe systemic disease

Diagnosis Code:

H90.41 – Sensorineural hearing loss, unilateral, right ear

Why others are incorrect:

AA – Personally performed

QX / QY – Incorrect direction model

H90.5 – Unspecified hearing loss

The provider documents history of COVID-19, not active COVID-19.

Z86.16 = Personal history of COVID-19

J18.9 = Pneumonia, unspecified organism

Codes U07.1 and U09.9 are for current or post-COVID conditions, which are not documented here. Therefore, A is correct.

Autopsy CPT coding is based on theextent of the examination(gross only vs gross and microscopic) and whether special anatomic components (such asbrain and spinal cord) are included. The question states the pathologist performedboth gross and microscopicexamination and explicitly included thebrain and spinal cord, which indicates acomprehensive autopsyservice rather than a limited or gross-only autopsy. CPT88028represents a complete autopsy with gross and microscopic examination that includes examination of the central nervous system structures (brain and spinal cord) as part of the comprehensive scope. The other codes listed represent different autopsy levels or components that do not match the “gross and microscopic” plus CNS inclusion described. CPC exam approach: anchor first ongross + microscopic(not gross-only), then look for wording that indicates acomplete autopsy. When the stem highlights “brain and spinal cord,” it is signaling the higher-complexity comprehensive autopsy code selection. Therefore,88028is the correct CPT code.

Burn coding requires (1) code each burn site bylocation, laterality, and degree, and (2) add aTBSAcode when appropriate. The patient hasthird-degree burnsof both thighs (right and left), so the correct site/degree codes areT24.311A(third-degree burn of right thigh, initial encounter) andT24.312A(third-degree burn of left thigh, initial encounter). He also hassecond-degree burnsof the right anterior chest wall and the upper back, reported withT21.21XA(second-degree burn of chest wall, initial encounter) andT21.23XA(second-degree burn of back wall, initial encounter). TBSA is24%(falls in the 20–29% category), andthird-degree is 10%(falls in the 10–19% third-degree category), so the correct TBSA code isT31.21. Option D matches the required site/degree codes and the correct TBSA/third-degree percentage code pairing.

Medicare Part B provides coverage for outpatient services, including physician services, preventive care, outpatient procedures, diagnostic tests, and durable medical equipment. Part B is a key component of Medicare, covering medically necessary services and some preventive services.

A. Part C (Medicare Advantage) includes all benefits and services covered under Parts A and B and often additional services, but it is provided through private insurance companies.

C. Part A covers inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facility care, hospice, and some home health services.

D. Part D provides coverage for prescription drugs.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Part B.

This scenario describes acytogenetic-type analysis targetingchromosomal abnormalities, performed using fluorescence-based microscopy techniques (commonly conceptually aligned with FISH-type evaluation). The question explicitly states thatno specific CPT code accurately describes the service, which signals that anunlistedcode is required. In CPT, the88299code is the unlisted procedure code forcytogenetic studies, used when a chromosomal/genetic laboratory procedure does not have a more specific existing CPT descriptor. The other unlisted options correspond to different laboratory sections:84999is an unlisted chemistry procedure,88199is an unlisted cytopathology procedure, and88749is not the correct unlisted cytogenetics code for this context as presented. CPC exam technique: match thedomainfirst (chromosomes → cytogenetics), then select the appropriateunlisted code within that domainwhen the stem says no specific CPT code exists. Proper use of unlisted codes also implies documentation of method, purpose, and comparables for payer review, but the test asks only for the correct unlisted CPT code.

Modifier -53 = Discontinued procedure after anesthesia and/or incision due to patient safety

-74 is used by facility, not physician

-52 is for reduced services, not discontinued procedures

Medical terms often consist of a root word and a suffix.

Hepat/o = liver

-itis = inflammation

Therefore, hepatitis literally means inflammation of the liver.

The incorrect options refer to inflammation of other body parts:

Dermatitis – inflammation of the skin

Gastritis – inflammation of the stomach

Arthritis – inflammation of the joints

Hence, the correct answer is C. Hepatitis.

This is aninitial hospital service(admitted this morning; “reason for admission”), so the correct E/M family isinitial hospital inpatient/observation carerather than subsequent hospital care (99232/99233). The encounter includes a detailed history, comprehensive exam elements focused on abdominal pathology, and meaningful initial management: NPO, IV fluids,IV morphine, ordering and reviewing lab panels, and ordering imaging (ultrasound and HIDA) with possible surgical consultation—supporting at leastmoderate MDM, consistent with99222in typical CPC exam mapping. Diagnosis coding: “rule out cholecystitis” is not a confirmed inpatient discharge diagnosis in the provided note; at this stage the physician’s final assessment isRUQ abdominal pain, rule out cholecystitis. Therefore, you report thesign/symptomcodeR10.11 (right upper quadrant pain)rather thanK81.9(cholecystitis, unspecified), because cholecystitis is not established as definitive in the note. Option A correctly pairs an initial hospital E/M code with the symptom diagnosis supported by documentation.