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Isaca CRISC - Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control

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Total 1641 questions

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

Which of the following is the BEST control to detect an advanced persistent threat (APT)?

A.

Utilizing antivirus systems and firewalls

B.

Conducting regular penetration tests

C.

Monitoring social media activities

D.

Implementing automated log monitoring

A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.

B.

The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.

C.

The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.

D.

The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

A.

Cost of offsite backup premises

B.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

C.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan

D.

Response time of the emergency action plan

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of risk management?

A.

Identify and analyze risk.

B.

Achieve business objectives

C.

Minimi2e business disruptions.

D.

Identify threats and vulnerabilities.

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

Which of the following will BEST support management reporting on risk?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Risk policy requirements

C.

A risk register

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?

A.

Cable lock

B.

Acceptable use policy

C.

Data encryption

D.

Asset tag with GPS

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

A.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

B.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

C.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

A.

Risk appetite is decreased.

B.

Inherent risk is increased.

C.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

D.

Residual risk is increased.

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when reviewing an organization's risk register?

A.

Risk ownership is recorded.

B.

Vulnerabilities have separate entries.

C.

Control ownership is recorded.

D.

Residual risk is less than inherent risk.

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register?

A.

Risk control assessment

B.

Audit reports with risk ratings

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?

A.

The underutilization of the replicated Iink

B.

The cost of recovering the data

C.

The lack of integrity of data

D.

The loss of data confidentiality

Which of the blowing is MOST important when implementing an organization s security policy?

A.

Obtaining management support

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Assessing compliance requirements

D.

Identifying threats and vulnerabilities

The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:

A.

encrypting the data

B.

including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract

C.

assessing the data classification scheme

D.

reviewing CSP access privileges

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when a company is made aware of new regulatory requirements impacting IT?

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Prioritize impact to the business units.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Review the risk tolerance and appetite.

Which of the following BEST protects an organization against breaches when using a software as a service (SaaS) application?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Security information and event management (SIEM) solutions

C.

Data privacy impact assessment (DPIA)

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP) tools

A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Report the incident.

B.

Plan a security awareness session.

C.

Assess the new risk.

D.

Update the risk register.

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for

sensitive data?

A.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

B.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels

C.

Recommend device management controls

D.

Enable role-based access control.

The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:

A.

the risk register change log.

B.

evidence of risk acceptance.

C.

control effectiveness test results.

D.

control design documentation.

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Root cause analysis

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

An organization has committed to a business initiative with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

A.

Recommend rejection of the initiative.

B.

Change the level of risk appetite.

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk.

D.

Initiate a reassessment of the risk.

The following is the snapshot of a recently approved IT risk register maintained by an organization's information security department.

After implementing countermeasures listed in ‘’Risk Response Descriptions’’ for each of the Risk IDs, which of the following component of the register MUST change?

A.

Risk Impact Rating

B.

Risk Owner

C.

Risk Likelihood Rating

D.

Risk Exposure

Which of the following can be used to assign a monetary value to risk?

A.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Business impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Inherent vulnerabilities

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?

A.

Approving operational strategies and objectives

B.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk

C.

Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program

D.

Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register

What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register?

A.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Control environment

C.

IT objectives

D.

Organizational objectives

Key control indicators (KCls) help to assess the effectiveness of the internal control environment PRIMARILY by:

A.

ensuring controls are operating efficiently and facilitating productivity.

B.

enabling senior leadership to better understand the level of risk the organization is facing.

C.

monitoring changes in the likelihood of adverse events due to ineffective controls.

D.

providing information on the degree to which controls are meeting intended objectives.

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?

A.

Conducting security awareness training

B.

Updating the information security policy

C.

Implementing mock phishing exercises

D.

Requiring two-factor authentication

When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?

A.

BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.

C.

BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.

D.

Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.

A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization'senterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?

A.

Align applications to business processes.

B.

Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).

C.

Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

KRI design must precede definition of KCIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs are independent indicators and do not impact each other.

C.

A decreasing trend of KRI readings will lead to changes to KCIs.

D.

Both KRIs and KCIs provide insight to potential changes in the level of risk.

Warning banners on login screens for laptops provided by an organization to its employees are an example of which type of control?

A.

Corrective

B.

Preventive

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation of a risk practitioner for an organization that recently changed its organizational structure?

A.

Communicate the new risk profile.

B.

Implement a new risk assessment process.

C.

Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.

D.

Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

A multinational company needs to implement a new centralized security system. The risk practitioner has identified a conflict between the organization's data-handling policy and local privacy regulations. Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?

A.

Request a policy exception from senior management.

B.

Comply with the organizational policy.

C.

Report the noncompliance to the local regulatory agency.

D.

Request an exception from the local regulatory agency.

When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes

A.

risk exposure in business terms

B.

a detailed view of individual risk exposures

C.

a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.

D.

recommendations by an independent risk assessor.

Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:

A.

risk register

B.

risk catalog

C.

risk scenario

D.

RACI matrix

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

Which of the following metrics is BEST used to communicate to senior management that the control environment manages risk within appetite and tolerance?

A.

Number of security incidents

B.

Reduction in control expenditures

C.

Number of risk responses executed

D.

Reduction in residual risk

Which of the following is the BEST way to protect sensitive data from administrators within a public cloud?

A.

Use an encrypted tunnel lo connect to the cloud.

B.

Encrypt the data in the cloud database.

C.

Encrypt physical hard drives within the cloud.

D.

Encrypt data before it leaves the organization.

A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:

A.

mitigated

B.

accepted

C.

avoided

D.

deferred

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

The BEST way to determine the likelihood of a system availability risk scenario is by assessing the:

A.

availability of fault tolerant software.

B.

strategic plan for business growth.

C.

vulnerability scan results of critical systems.

D.

redundancy of technical infrastructure.