CSI IFC - Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) Exam

An RRSP must be terminated by the end of the calendar year in which the holder turns 71. At that time, assets must either be:

Withdrawn in full (taxable),

Converted to a Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF), or

Used to purchase an annuity.

Thus, the correct age is 71.

In Canada, anyone involved in securities enforcement or adjudication must be properly licensed or registered.

The unlicensed new hire erred by taking on a case (licensing violation) without being formally registered, violating regulatory requirements.

Requesting subpoenas (A) and FATF involvement (C) may show poor judgment, but the fundamental error is acting without registration.

The management expense ratio (MER) is the percentage of a fund’s assets that is paid to the fund manager for operating and managing the fund. A higher MER means that more of the fund’s returns are eaten up by fees, leaving less for the investors. Therefore, Fontaine Equity Fund’s higher MER of 2.99% contributes to its lower 5-year annualized return of 11.25%, compared to Chamberlain Equity Fund’s MER of 2.57% and 5-year annualized return of 13.42%. Therefore, D is the correct answer. , Management Expense Ratio (MER): Definition and How It Works - Investopedia

The financial planning pyramid illustrates the risk-return spectrum of investments. For a very aggressive investor, high-risk securities like OTC securities are suitable. The feedback from the document states:

"As a visual aid, the planning pyramid helps you show clients how mutual funds fit into the investment universe. A very aggressive investor could consider investments such as OTC Securities."

Market risk (systematic risk) cannot be eliminated by diversification or hedging; it affects all securities in the market (e.g., recessions, geopolitical events, interest rate changes).

Default risk (B) relates to specific issuers of debt.

Unique risk (C) is company-specific and can be diversified away.

Research and the CSC curriculum stress that asset allocation is the single most important factor in determining portfolio performance, more than market timing or security selection.

Proper asset mix (equities, fixed income, cash) accounts for most portfolio success or failure.

The correct answer is C. Manager D, because the Sharpe ratio is the primary measure used to evaluate risk-adjusted return, which is return earned per unit of total risk. The Investment Funds in Canada curriculum defines the Sharpe ratio as a tool that “measures how much excess return a portfolio generates relative to the risk taken.” A higher Sharpe ratio indicates superior risk-adjusted performance.

Manager D has the highest Sharpe ratio (+2) among all managers listed, meaning this manager generated the greatest excess return for each unit of risk, regardless of the portfolio’s beta. Although Manager D has a higher beta (2.75), beta measures systematic market risk, not total volatility. The Sharpe ratio already accounts for total risk (standard deviation), making it the preferred comparison metric when the question asks for return for a given level of risk.

Manager C has a positive Sharpe ratio (+1) but lower than Manager D, indicating inferior risk-adjusted performance. Managers A and B both have negative Sharpe ratios, which the CIFC text explains means the portfolio underperformed the risk-free rate, making them clearly inferior choices.

The CIFC curriculum stresses that when comparing managers across different risk profiles, “the Sharpe ratio is the most appropriate measure.” Since Manager D delivers the highest risk-adjusted return, Option C is the correct and fully CIFC-verified answer.

Old Age Security (OAS) requires Canadian residency for eligibility. A pensioner must typically have resided in Canada for at least 10 years after age 18 to qualify.

CPP (C) is contributory and based on employment earnings, not residency.

RPP (B) is an employer-sponsored pension, not linked to residency.

GIS (D) is a supplement to OAS and also requires residency but is dependent on OAS eligibility.

Know Your Client (KYC) requirements are ongoing obligations that advisors must fulfill to ensure that they provide suitable recommendations and services to their clients. KYC requirements include collecting and documenting information about the client’s personal and financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. KYC requirements also include monitoring and updating the client’s information and investment performance on a regular basis. According to the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA), advisors must review the KYC information at least once every 36 months, or more frequently if there are any material changes in the client’s circumstances or needs1. Advisors must also monitor the investment performance of the client’s portfolio and compare it with the client’s expectations and goals. If the investment performance is not satisfactory or consistent with the client’s risk tolerance, advisors must take appropriate actions, such as rebalancing the portfolio, switching funds, or revising the investment strategy2. Therefore, Harold’s responsibility moving forward is to monitor the investment performance of Felicia’s lump sum investment and determine if it is on track to satisfy her financial needs for the next 5 years. He must also review her KYC information at least once every 36 months, or sooner if there are any changes in her situation or objectives. References:

MFDA Bulletin #0756-P - Know-Your-Client and Suitability1

MFDA Bulletin #0760-P - Monitoring of Investment Performance2