CompTIA SY0-701 - CompTIA Security+ Exam 2026

The company should implement a certificate revocation list, or CRL. Smart-card authentication commonly relies on certificates issued to users. When employees leave, their certificates must be revoked so those credentials can no longer be trusted. A CRL is published by a certificate authority and lists certificates that should no longer be accepted before their normal expiration date. A CA issues and manages certificates, but the specific missing control is revocation checking. A TPM stores cryptographic material on a device and does not revoke user certificates. A CSR is used to request a certificate, not disable one. An HSM protects cryptographic keys, but it does not prevent former employees from using still-valid smart-card certificates.

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The presence of another device providing internet access that bypasses the content filtering system indicates the existence of a rogue access point. Rogue access points are unauthorized devices that can create a backdoor into the network, allowing users to bypass security controls like content filtering. This presents a significant security risk as it can expose the network to unauthorized access and potential data breaches.

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Rogue access points are highlighted as a major security risk, allowing unauthorized access to the network and bypassing security measures​​.

TheCommon Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)is astandardized framework for assessing the severity of vulnerabilities. It provides a numerical score (0-10) based on factors such asexploitability, impact, and complexity, helping security analystsprioritize remediation efforts based on risk.

Business impact analysis (A)helps identifycritical business functionsbut does not specificallyprioritize vulnerabilities.

Risk register (C)tracks identified risks but does not classify vulnerabilities.

Exposure factor (D)is used inquantitative risk assessmentbut is not an industry standard for vulnerability prioritization.

The best technical defense is to deploy more secure email gateways and block emails from unknown or suspicious domains. The scenario specifically states that payroll fraud occurred because of phishing attacks, which commonly arrive through email and attempt to impersonate trusted parties, harvest credentials, or initiate fraudulent payment activity. Secure email gateways can inspect sender reputation, domains, attachments, links, headers, and suspicious message patterns before users receive the emails. Internal phishing campaigns and training are valuable, but they are administrative awareness controls, not technical defenses. EDR is useful for endpoint detection, but it does not primarily stop phishing emails before delivery. Browser patching and DNS block lists help reduce web-based risk, but email gateway filtering is the most direct technical control for phishing-based payroll fraud.

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A web filter is a device or software that can monitor, block, or allow web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. One of the common methods of web filtering is to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. For example, a web filter can block access to websites that contain the words “gambling”, “porn”, or “malware” in their URLs. A URL is a uniform resource locator that identifies the location and protocol of a web resource. A URL typically consists of the following components: protocol://domain:port/path?query#fragment.The protocol specifies the communication method used to access the web resource, such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, or SMTP. The domain is the name of the web server that hosts the web resource, such as www.google.com or www.bing.com. The port is an optional number that identifies the specific service or application running on the web server, such as 80 for HTTP or 443 for HTTPS. The path is the specific folder or file name of the web resource, such as /index.html or /images/logo.png. The query is an optional string that contains additional information or parameters for the web resource, such as ?q=security or ?lang=en. The fragment is an optional string that identifies a specific part or section of the web resource, such as #introduction or #summary.

To prohibit access to non-encrypted websites, an analyst should employ a search string that matches the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic, which is HTTP. HTTP stands for hypertext transfer protocol, and it is a standard protocol for transferring data between web servers and web browsers. However, HTTP does not provide any encryption or security for the data, which means that anyone who intercepts the web traffic can read or modify the data. Therefore, non-encrypted websites are vulnerable to eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing attacks. To access a non-encrypted website, the URL usually starts with http://, followed by the domain name and optionally the port number. For example, http://www.example.com or http://www.example.com:80. By scanning the URL for the string http://, the web filter can identify and block non-encrypted websites.

The other options are not correct because they do not match the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic. Encryption=off is a possible query string that indicates the encryption status of the web resource, but it is not a standard or mandatory parameter. Https:// is the protocol of encrypted web traffic, which uses hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) to provide encryption and security for the data. Www.*.com is a possible domain name that matches any website that starts with www and ends with .com, but it does not specify the protocol. :443 is the port number of HTTPS, which is the protocol of encrypted web traffic. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Securing Networks, page 69. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 2.1: Network Devices and Technologies, video: Web Filter (5:16).

Detailed Explanation:

A software development life cycle (SDLC) policy outlines responsibilities, best practices, and standards for developing, deploying, and maintaining secure systems and software. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: " Policies and Standards " ​​.

Detailed Explanation:COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled) devices allow companies to manage and harden company-owned devices while still enabling limited personal use, reducing security risks while maintaining compatibility with corporate resources. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: " Mobile Device Deployment Models " ​​.

The analyst needs to establish baselines. Abnormal behavior can only be identified reliably when there is a known standard of normal activity. A baseline defines expected server behavior, such as CPU usage, memory consumption, network connections, logon patterns, running processes, service activity, traffic volume, and file access patterns. Once normal behavior is documented, deviations become easier to detect and investigate. Disabling unnecessary ports is system hardening, not behavior analysis. Patching the system reduces known vulnerabilities but does not define what is normal or abnormal. Alert tuning adjusts detection rules to reduce false positives or false negatives, but tuning is stronger after baselines are understood. Therefore, baseline establishment is the correct operational step for identifying abnormal server behavior.

Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options. References = Security Alerting and Monitoring Concepts and Tools – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 4.3, video at 7:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 191.

 Automation is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified. Automation is the process of using software, hardware, or other tools to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention or manual effort. Automation can help to improve the efficiency, accuracy, and consistency of security operations, as well as reduce human errors and costs. Automation can be used to monitor, audit, and enforce security settings on servers, such as firewall rules, encryption keys, access controls, patch levels, and configuration files. Automation can also alert security personnel of any changes or anomalies that may indicate a security breach or compromise12.

The other options are not the best ways to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified:

Compliance checklist: This is a document that lists the security requirements, standards, or best practices that an organization must follow or adhere to. A compliance checklist can help to ensure that the security settings on servers are aligned with the organizational policies and regulations, but it does not automatically detect or report any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis3.

Attestation: This is a process of verifying or confirming the validity or accuracy of a statement, claim, or fact. Attestation can be used to provide assurance or evidence that the security settings on servers are correct and authorized, but it does not continuously monitor or audit any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis4.

Manual audit: This is a process of examining or reviewing the security settings on servers by human inspectors or auditors. A manual audit can help to identify and correct any security issues or discrepancies on servers, but it is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and prone to human errors. A manual audit may not be feasible or practical to perform on a daily basis.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: Automation and Scripting – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 5.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.

802.1X is the correct answer because it provides port-based network access control. It authenticates devices or users before allowing access through a switch port or wireless access point. In a typical deployment, the supplicant is the endpoint, the authenticator is the switch or access point, and the authentication server is often RADIUS. This allows an organization to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the internal network. EDR protects endpoints by detecting and responding to threats, but it does not provide port-based authentication. SASE is a cloud-delivered security architecture for secure access and networking. WPA3 strengthens wireless encryption and authentication, but the phrase “port-based authentication” specifically identifies 802.1X. Therefore, 802.1X best satisfies the requirement.

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Investigation is the incident response step that involves analyzing evidence, developing hypotheses, and confirming or denying possible attack paths. During investigation, analysts review logs, endpoint data, network telemetry, alerts, threat intelligence, and user activity to determine what happened, how the attacker operated, and what systems were affected. Identification is the stage where an event is recognized as a potential incident. Preparation involves policies, tools, training, playbooks, and readiness before an incident occurs. Containment focuses on limiting the attacker’s access and preventing further damage after the incident is understood enough to act. Because the question specifically mentions forming and testing hypotheses using multiple sources, the activity is investigative analysis, making investigation the correct answer.

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The correct answer is $10,000 because Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) represents the expected yearly financial loss from a specific risk. According to Security+ SY0-701 risk management principles, ALE is calculated using the formula:

ALE = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) × Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)

In this scenario, the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is clearly defined as $15,000, which represents the financial impact of a single security breach. The challenge lies in determining the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). The breach is expected to occur twice over a three-year period, which means the ARO is:

ARO = 2 ÷ 3 ≈ 0.67 occurrences per year

Using the ALE formula:

ALE = $15,000 × 0.67 ≈ $10,000

This calculation aligns with standard quantitative risk assessment techniques emphasized in the SY0-701 study guide. ALE allows organizations to compare the cost of potential losses against the cost of implementing security controls, helping leadership make informed, financially sound risk management decisions.

Option A, $7,500, would be correct only if the event occurred once every two years. Option C, $15,000, reflects the SLE but does not account for frequency. Option D, $30,000, incorrectly represents the total loss over three years rather than an annualized value.

The SY0-701 objectives highlight ALE as a critical metric for prioritizing risks, justifying security investments, and communicating risk in business terms to executives. By converting risk into an annual expected cost, ALE bridges the gap between technical security concerns and organizational financial planning.

In summary, when frequency is spread across multiple years, the loss must be annualized. Doing so correctly results in an ALE of $10,000, making option B the correct answer.

To ensure that sensitive data, such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII), is not modified, the bank should implement file integrity monitoring (FIM). FIM tracks changes to files and provides alerts if unauthorized modifications are detected, ensuring data integrity.

Full disk encryption protects data at rest but does not prevent or monitor modifications.

Network access control (NAC) manages access to the network but doesn ' t monitor file changes.

User behavior analytics (UBA) detects suspicious user activities but is not focused on file integrity​​​.