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Zscaler ZTCA - Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate

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Total 75 questions

Which of the following actions can be included in a conditional “block” policy? (Select 2)

A.

Quarantine: Ensure access is stopped and assessed.

B.

Deceive: Direct any malicious attack to a restricted decoy.

C.

Firehose: Send TCP resets to the initiator.

D.

Allow the connection.

Historically, initiators and destinations have shared which of the following?

A.

A network, because prior to Zero Trust there was no other way to connect the two.

B.

The same IP subnet range.

C.

The same punch card machine, pre-computer.

D.

Physical hard drives and storage.

What protects Personally Identifiable Information (PII) accidentally shared by a colleague to the entire company?

A.

SSL/TLS inspection.

B.

Verifying identity and context through a secure identity provider.

C.

Data Loss Prevention (out-of-band and inline).

D.

Virtual firewalls.

Data center applications are moving to:

A.

The branch.

B.

Castle and moat type architectures.

C.

The DMZ.

D.

The cloud.

Should a Zero Trust solution inspect traffic for all destinations?

A.

No. Only traffic destined to engineering services and financial applications.

B.

No. Traffic should never be inspected.

C.

No. It is important to find a balance. The Zero Trust solution should give the enterprise the ability to implement inspection for any application or destination. Although it is strongly recommended, it is up to the enterprise to decide where inspection is needed.

D.

No. Only non-TLS/SSL-based traffic should be inspected.

As a part of the first section of Zero Trust, Verify Identity, we understand the who, the what, and the where, in order to:

A.

Revoke network access to unauthorized users, devices, and workloads.

B.

Provide a secure set of controls for the initiator, requiring the initiator to go through layers of validation as they attempt to access an application.

C.

Provide proper billing by counting the number of deployed end users within a customer’s environment.

D.

Provide disaster recovery and business continuity in a “black swan” event context.

What are some of the outputs of dynamic risk assessment?

A.

Categories, criteria, and insights pertaining to each access request.

B.

A full PCAP of the inline data transfer.

C.

A backup and restore configuration process, run manually during a change window.

D.

An ML/AI-driven engine analyzing and determining application segments after wildcard domains are established.

A Zero Trust solution must account for an enterprise’s risk tolerance via:

A.

Industry analyst firms such as Gartner and Forrester should provide the best guidance.

B.

A Zero Trust certification process, whereby every employee at the company is Zero Trust certified.

C.

A dynamic risk score, which feeds into a decision engine that determines whether access should be granted.

D.

The enterprise security architecture team should create a standard formula to calculate a fixed risk score for each unique initiator based on previous security incidents.

What needs to be known to help inform policy decision enforcement?

A.

The time of day.

B.

The location and time zone of the initiator.

C.

Full context of the user, application, device posture, and related conditions.

D.

The verified identity of the initiator.

The second part of a Zero Trust architecture after verifying identity and context is:

A.

Controlling content and access.

B.

Re-checking the SAML assertion.

C.

Enforcing policy.

D.

Microsegmentation.