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Cisco 200-301 - Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1

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Total 1209 questions

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

A.

large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

B.

large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

C.

small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

D.

small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

A.

bridge

B.

route

C.

autonomous

D.

lightweight

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

A.

ntp authenticate

B.

ntp server

C.

ntp peer

D.

ntp master

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

A.

enable the PortFast feature on ports

B.

implement port-based authentication

C.

configure static ARP entries

D.

configure ports to a fixed speed

E.

shut down unused ports

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

A.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

A.

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.

The frame is dropped

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Which device separates networks by security domains?

A.

firewall

B.

access point

C.

intrusion protection system

D.

wireless controller

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

What is a specification for SSIDS?

A.

They are a Cisco proprietary security feature.

B.

They must include one number and one letter.

C.

They define the VLAN on a switch.

D.

They are case sensitive.

Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

A.

personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

B.

complex password and personal 10-digit PIN

C.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN

D.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?

A.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a loopback address, and an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a directly attached interface.

B.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address can be used throughout a company site or network, but an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

C.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is global, but the scope of an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

D.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a directly attached interface, but an IPv6 unique local address is used throughout a company site or network.

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

A.

root-bridge loss

B.

spanning-tree loops

C.

default gateway failure

D.

BGP neighbor flapping

A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

A.

/29

B.

/30

C.

/27

D.

/28

How does MAC learning function on a switch?

A.

broadcasts frames to all ports without queueing

B.

adds unknown source MAC addresses to the address table

C.

sends a retransmission request when a new frame is received

D.

sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group

Refer to the exhibit.

Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A.

Under Protected Management Frames, set the PMF option to Required.

B.

Enable CCKM under Authentication Key Management.

C.

Set the Fast Transition option and the WPA gtk-randomize State to disable.

D.

Set the Fast Transition option to Enable and enable FT 802.1X under Authentication Key Management.

Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?

A.

BPDU guard

B.

loop guard

C.

portfast

D.

uplinkfast

Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?

A.

LAG

B.

EtherChannel

C.

trunk

D.

access

What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)

A.

to enable the number of MAC addresses learned on the port to l

B.

to protect the operation of the port from topology change processes

C.

to enable the pod to enter the forwarding state immediately when the host boots up

D.

to prevent the port from participating in Spanning Tree Protocol operations

E.

to block another switch or host from communicating through the port

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Faster changes with more reliable results

B.

Reduced operational costs

C.

Fewer network failures

D.

Reduced hardware footprint

E.

Increased network security

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

A.

magic links

B.

one-time passwords

C.

digital certificates

D.

90-day renewal policies

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands.

A.

metric

B.

cost

C.

longest prefix

D.

administrative distance

Which two statements distinguish authentication from accounting? (Choose two.)

A.

Only authentication records the duration of a user's connection.

B.

Only authentication supports user-activity audits.

C.

Only authentication provides supporting information for billing users.

D.

Only authentication challenges users for their credentials and returns a response.

E.

Only authentication validates "who you are."

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

A.

to rate-limit messages for different seventy levels from each device

B.

to set the severity of syslog messages from each device

C.

to identify the source from which each syslog message originated

D.

to control the number of syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally

Refer to the exhibit.

Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the prefix length for the route that Router1 will use to reach Host A?

A.

/25

B.

/27

C.

/28

D.

/29

Drag and drop the statements about AAA services firm the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right Not all options are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?

A.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.1

B.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.255..240 fa0/1 89

C.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.171

D.

ip route 10.80.65.0.0.0.224.10.80.65.0. 255

What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

A.

Increase the available throughput on the link.

B.

Increase security by encrypting management frames

C.

Allow for stateful failover between WLCs

D.

Enable the connected switch ports to use different Layer 2 configurations

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

A.

An ICMP connection has been built

B.

A certificate has expired

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A TCP connection has been torn down

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

A.

IPS

B.

firewall

C.

access point

D.

switch

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

A.

flexibility of design

B.

simplicity of configurator

C.

low cost

D.

full-mesh capability

A network architect planning a new Wi-Fi network must decide between autonomous, cloud-based, and split MAC architectures. Which two facts should the architect consider? (Choose two.)

A.

Lightweight access points are solely used by split MAC architectures.

B.

Cloud-based architectures uniquely use the CAPWAP protocol to communicate between access points and clients.

C.

Each of the three architectures must use WLCs to manage their access points.

D.

All three architectures use access points to manage the wireless devices connected to the wired infrastructure.

E.

Autonomous architectures exclusively use tunneling protocols to manage access points remotely.

Which IPsec mode encapsulates the entire IP packet?

A.

tunnel

B.

Q-in-Q

C.

SSL VPN

D.

transport