CompTIA 220-1201 - CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2026)

The most likely failed component in this scenario is the touch screen. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device hardware and troubleshooting objectives, smartphones rely on the digitizer (touch screen layer) to detect user input such as taps, swipes, and on-screen keyboard presses. If the device powers on and displays the lock screen but does not register code input, this strongly indicates a failure in the touch input functionality.

A failed charging port would prevent the device from charging but would not affect the ability to enter a passcode if the device is powered on. An OLED failure would result in display issues such as a blank screen, flickering, discoloration, or no image at all—none of which are described in this scenario. A biometric scanner (fingerprint or facial recognition) failure would only impact biometric authentication methods; users would still be able to unlock the phone using a PIN or passcode.

CompTIA emphasizes distinguishing between display output issues and input issues when troubleshooting mobile devices. Since the problem specifically involves unsuccessful code entry despite the phone being operational, the root cause is the touch screen.

The workstation ' s IP configuration (192.168.1.27/24 with gateway 192.168.1.1) shows that it has a correct IP address, correct subnet mask, and expected default gateway for a typical small office network. Because the IP is in the correct private range and not an APIPA address (169.254.x.x), this also confirms that DHCP is functioning properly. Therefore, option D (DHCP) cannot be the cause.

The user then pings the default gateway at 192.168.1.1, which should be the router—the device providing routing between local devices and outside networks. The repeated " Request timed out " responses indicate the workstation cannot reach the router at all. This type of failure points directly to a router outage, a powered-off router, a failed router interface, or a physical disconnection of the router from the switch.

If DNS (C) were the issue, the user would still be able to ping the IP address of the gateway because DNS is not required for IP-to-IP connectivity. A web server (A) has no relation to local gateway communication and does not affect workstation access.

Since the workstation has a valid IP but cannot reach its default gateway, the failure point is the router.

A RAID 1 array uses disk mirroring, meaning all data is written identically to two drives. When one drive fails, the other contains a complete, current copy of the data. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that RAID 1 is designed for fault tolerance, allowing continued operation even after a disk failure.

The correct action is to replace the defective drive and allow the RAID controller to rebuild (sync) the mirror onto the new disk. This restores redundancy and ensures ongoing data protection. The system can typically continue running during the rebuild process.

Option A is incorrect because attempting to repair a failed drive is unreliable and unnecessary—RAID 1 already provides a healthy copy. Option B ignores the importance of restoring redundancy, leaving the system vulnerable to data loss if the remaining drive fails. Option D (restore from backup) is unnecessary because RAID 1 already preserves the data.

Therefore, the best solution is to install a new drive and resynchronize the array, preserving all data with minimal disruption.

Improper seating is the most common reason an SSD isn’t recognized. Ensuring it is correctly connected resolves the issue.

Why Not A (Faulty SSD): A faulty SSD is possible but less likely than an installation issue.

Why Not B (Not formatted): Formatting affects data usability, not drive detection.

Why Not C (Incompatibility): SSD compatibility issues are rare with modern hardware.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.3, storage troubleshooting​.

When port issues persist after moving to a different switch port, the next logical troubleshooting step is to test the patch cable. Faulty or damaged cables are a common cause of network connectivity problems. Using a cable tester between the computer and the network closet verifies the integrity of the cable and rules out a physical layer issue.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.2 – Troubleshoot wired and wireless networks:

“If a device continues to experience connectivity issues after switching ports, test the cabling with a cable tester to check for continuity, shorts, or pinout issues before replacing hardware.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Network Connectivity

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.2

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DisplayPort is a fully digital video interface that supports HDCP (High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection), a digital rights-management protocol used to protect copyrighted content such as movies, streaming video, and Blu-ray playback. The CompTIA A+ study guide notes that DisplayPort and HDMI support HDCP, while analog connections like VGA and DVI-A do not support HDCP because analog signals cannot enforce digital content protection.

F-type connectors are used for coaxial cabling (cable TV, satellite), not digital video output. DisplayPort ' s support for encrypted high-definition video streams makes it the correct answer and aligns with CompTIA’s coverage of display connectors and digital content protection technologies.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

When assigning a static IP address to a network device such as a printer, the administrator must manually enter all information that a DHCP server would normally provide automatically.

CompTIA A+ networking fundamentals explain that a statically assigned host requires:

IP address (set manually)

Subnet mask (must be manually configured to define the network boundary)

Default gateway (must be manually assigned so the device can communicate outside its subnet)

DNS (also typically required, but in SOHO printer configs, it is not always mandatory unless name resolution is needed)

The question asks specifically: Which must be set manually?

The two required components for every static IP assignment in a CompTIA-compliant small office network are:

✔ B. Subnet mask

Defines the network and host portions of the IP address. Must be manually entered for static IPs.

✔ C. Default gateway

Allows communication outside the local network. Must also be manually set for static IP devices.

Why the other options are incorrect

A. DHCP

Not used in static addressing. DHCP is automatic; static addressing bypasses it.

D. DNS

Not always required for printers unless hostname resolution is needed. The question asks for what must be set manually.

E. Reservations

DHCP reservations create “static-like” addresses via DHCP, not manual configuration.

F. Exclusions

Used to prevent DHCP from assigning certain IPs; not part of configuring a static IP on a device.

The accelerometer is the component most likely malfunctioning. A mobile-device accelerometer measures changes in movement, tilt, and orientation along multiple axes. The operating system uses this sensor data to determine whether the device is being held vertically in portrait mode or horizontally in landscape mode. Because automatic rotation is enabled correctly in the software, the failure to detect physical rotation points to a sensor problem rather than a configuration problem. The antenna handles wireless communications such as cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or GPS reception and does not detect screen orientation. The front-facing camera captures images and supports video calls or facial-recognition functions. The GPS module determines geographic position using satellite signals but does not control display rotation. A failed or unresponsive accelerometer would therefore prevent the operating system from recognizing that the phone has been rotated and changing the screen orientation accordingly.

A private cloud provides cloud resources that are dedicated to a single organization, giving that organization exclusive use of the underlying infrastructure. This model is selected when a company needs tighter control over security, compliance, performance, and customization than what is typically available in a multi-tenant public cloud environment. Private cloud resources can be hosted on-premises in the organization’s own data center or hosted by a third party, but the key point is exclusive access—the hardware and cloud environment are not shared with unrelated customers.

A public cloud is shared among multiple customers (multi-tenant), so it is not exclusive. A hybrid cloud combines two environments, usually a private cloud and a public cloud, which can help with flexibility and scaling, but it is not defined as exclusive because part of it may be public. A community cloud is shared by organizations with common needs (such as similar compliance requirements), meaning it is shared among multiple entities rather than exclusive to one organization. Therefore, the cloud model that provides exclusive access to resources is Private.

Physical damage from dropping a tablet may often affect ports or connectors. Before taking deeper diagnostic or replacement steps, it ' s important to visually inspect the USB-C charging port for damage or debris. If the port is damaged, charging issues can occur regardless of battery health.

Elasticity in cloud computing refers to the ability of a system to automatically allocate and release resources (such as CPU, RAM, or virtual machines) as workload demands change. This feature is key to ensuring that resources are used efficiently without manual intervention.

When a legacy application is running on multiple physical servers, and the organization wants to maintain it until retirement, the best CompTIA-aligned solution is virtualization. Virtualization allows the engineer to convert existing physical servers into virtual machines (VMs), a process known as P2V (Physical-to-Virtual) migration. This reduces hardware footprint, simplifies management, and isolates the application within a controlled environment. CompTIA A+ emphasizes virtualization for legacy support because it eliminates dependence on aging physical hardware while preserving application functionality exactly as before.

Virtual machines also provide snapshots, backups, failover capabilities, and easier resource allocation, making them more reliable than maintaining old hardware. A SAN (A) provides storage, not application hosting. FaaS (B) is a serverless model inappropriate for legacy applications that require full OS environments. A configuration management platform (D) manages software deployments and settings but does not replace or consolidate physical servers.

Thus, virtualization is the most suitable and industry-standard method for sustaining legacy applications.

Wi-Fi Direct is designed to provide high-speed, short-range wireless communication directly between devices such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, and printers without requiring a traditional wireless access point. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, Wi-Fi Direct uses standard Wi-Fi radio technology, allowing devices to communicate at speeds comparable to typical wireless LAN connections.

Near-field communication (NFC) operates at extremely short distances (typically a few centimeters) and supports very low data transfer rates, making it unsuitable for high-speed data transmission. Zigbee is a low-power, low-bandwidth protocol commonly used for IoT and home automation devices, not for high-speed data sharing. Infrared requires line-of-sight and offers limited data rates, which restricts its usefulness for modern mobile devices.

Wi-Fi Direct is commonly used for tasks such as file sharing, screen mirroring, and device-to-device printing. CompTIA emphasizes understanding the differences between short-range wireless technologies, particularly distinguishing high-throughput solutions like Wi-Fi Direct from low-power or proximity-based technologies.

An eSIM (embedded SIM) allows users to change carriers and provision new cellular service without installing any physical hardware. It is managed via software and is ideal for international travelers who need to switch providers quickly.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Install and configure mobile device network connectivity:

" eSIMs provide carrier flexibility by enabling remote provisioning and profile switching, making it possible to connect to different networks without a physical SIM card. "

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Mobile Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3

DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is the service that automatically assigns IP addresses and other essential network settings to devices when they join a network. Instead of manually configuring each device with an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers, a DHCP server provides these settings dynamically from a defined address pool. This reduces configuration errors, prevents IP conflicts, and makes network administration easier—especially in environments with many devices or frequent changes. In the DHCP process, a client broadcasts a request, the DHCP server offers an address, the client requests that offered address, and the server acknowledges it, granting the device a lease for a specific period. The lease can be renewed, and administrators can also configure reservations to always give the same IP to a particular device based on its MAC address.

DNS is used for resolving hostnames to IP addresses, not assigning them. SMTP is for sending email between mail servers and clients. SNMP is used for monitoring and managing network devices. Therefore, DHCP is the correct service for automatically assigning IP addresses.