ASCP ASCP-MLT - MEDICAL LABORATORY TECHNICIAN - MLT(ASCP)

In DIC, or disseminated intravascular coagulation, the prothrombin time is increased due to the consumption of the coagulation factors due to the tiny clots forming throughout the vasculature. This is also the reason that the fibrinogen levels and platelet levels are decreased. Finally FDP, or fibrin degredation products, are increased due to the formation and subsequent dissolving of many tiny clots in the vasculature. The FDPs are the pieces of fibrin that are left after the fibrinolytic processes take place.

Which of the following laboratory results would be seen in a patient with acute Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

A positive DAT is consistent with a diagnosis of hemolytic disease of the newborn. A hemoglobin performed on the cord blood serves as an indicator of the severity of the disease.

In order to detect the presence of antibodies fixed on the RBC's of newborns one should:

The term affinity refers to the strength of attraction between a single antigenic determinant and a corresponding antigen binding site. The term avidity refers to the total strength of the attraction between an antibody and a multivalent antigen. The reaction between an IgM molecule (which has 10 antigen binding sites), and a multivalent antigen is therefore much stronger than that of an IgG antibody (which has only 2 antigen binding sites).

Avidity is best described by which of the following statements:

Which of the following CD markers is NOT present on a normal mature T cell?

As a general rule, CSF glucose is about two thirds of the serum glucose measured in a normal adult.

Chemistry

Which of the following would be considered a normal cerebrospinal fluid glucose if the serum glucose is 70 mg/dl?

Angiotensin is an oligopeptide in the blood that causes vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, and release of aldosterone from the adrenals.

A major action of angiotensin II is:

Phase of reactivity is primarily at immediate spin (4+) and reactions get weaker at AHG (w+). There is no specific pattern of reactivity and the auto control is negative which rules out an autoantibody. This is a strong cold antibody which is still slightly present after incubation and washing.

Activation and binding of the antibody takes place at room temperature or colder. Eliminating this phase will prevent the antibody from binding. Cold antibodies usually are more of a nuisance to blood bankers and are not clinically significant.

When performing an antibody screen, both the screen cells are 4+ at immediate spin and W+ at AHG. The antibody panel shows 4+ reactions at immediate spin and W+ reactions at AHG and there is no specific match to the reaction pattern. The auto control is negative. What would be a logical next step?

The blood glucose value is critical; negative ketones is consistent with type 2 diabetes. An elderly type 2 diabetic patient is at risk for hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma and osmolality should be measured.

A measurement of urine glucose would not be useful at this point.

A 70-year-old type 2 diabetic patient is comatose and in the emergency department. Stat blood glucose and serum ketones are ordered.

Blood Glucose: 650 mg/dL

Serum Ketones: Negative

What is the best conclusion?

High triglycerides may be caused by disorders such as type 2 diabetes, hypothyroidism, Cushing's sydnrome, liver disease, uremia, dysglobulinemia, nephrotic syndrome, and alcoholism can cause hypertriglyceridemia.

A 46-year old known alcoholic with liver damage is brought in the ER unconscious. One would expect his lipid values to be affected in what way?

Blood Bank; Immunology

Which of the following best describes the primary function of antibodies:

Set of comprehensive safety guidelines designed to protect patients and health care workers

Which of the following is NOT part of the magnification system of the microscope?

Since cimetidine inhibits CYP2D6, less amphetamine will probably need to be given since it will not be able to be metabolized as readily.

Most drug interactions are like this: one drug inhibits or competes with the same CYP450 as another drug. The end result is that higher concentrations of one, or both, drugs are present, leading to potential toxicity.

A patient is taking cimetidine for a stomach ulcer. This drug inhibits CYP2D6. The patient is now prescribed amphetamine for narcolepsy. Amphetamine is metabolized by CYP2D6. What would you predict?

The personal protective equipment (PPE) that is used in the laboratory to protect the personnel when performing tests on patient blood samples is which of the following:

India ink can aid in the visualization of the polysacchride capsules of yeast such as Cryptococcus neoformans.

Micro

India Ink is used to: