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PMI CAPM - Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

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Total 1250 questions

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

A.

Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.

B.

Conduct risk management activities for a project.

C.

Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.

D.

Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

Organizations perceive risks as:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

During a project's execution phase, the project manager reviews the communications management plan for communication technology factors. What can affect the choice of communications?

A.

Legal requirements

B.

Politics and power structures

C.

Internal information needs

D.

Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information

During project planning, team members seemed clear on deliverables. However, as the project progressed deeper into the execution phase, team members expressed the need for smaller components to better understand what must be delivered.

What should the project manager do?

A.

Inform the stakeholders that the stakeholder register needs to be recreated, as the team does not understand the requirements.

B.

Share the project management plan with the team members again to bring them up to speed on the requirements.

C.

Schedule additional meetings with the customer to explain the requirements for each deliverable at length.

D.

Revisit the work breakdown structure (WBS) again during execution, as the WBS can be defined at different points in the project.

A project manager is calculating the current budget. The earned value (EV) of the project is lower than the actual cost (AC) of the project. How should the project manager report the status of the project?

A.

The project is at risk as the cost variance (CV) is negative.

B.

The project is tracking well as the cost variance (CV) is negative.

C.

The project is within budget but is delayed.

D.

The project is within budget and within schedule.

What is main purpose of Project Quantity Management?

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

Which tool should a project manager use to calculate cost variance for a project?

A.

Review lessons learned from similar projects

B.

Actual cost

C.

Contingency analysis

D.

Expert judgment

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

A.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

B.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery timeline.

An adaptive project team is meeting for the first time and deciding on the project management approach. After defining the project artifacts, one team member argues that the events are missing. The scrum master coaches the team to complete the planning.

Which two of the following elements should be included? (Choose two)

A.

Daily scrum

B.

Increments

C.

Sprint retrospective

D.

Sprint backlog

E.

Product backlog

At what stages of project should the identify Stakeholder process be performed?

A.

When beginning each phase of the project

B.

At the beginning of the project only

C.

Only when the project manager is concerned about stakeholder satisfaction

D.

When the project charter is produced, at the beginning of each phase, and when significant changes occur

Which component of the project management plan should be updated if a change occurs?

A.

Project charter

B.

Project baseline

C.

Assumption log

D.

Schedule forecast

Which project management process is used by the project manager to ensure that stakeholders receive timely and relevant information?

A.

Plan Communications Management

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

What is the recommended approach for handling risk in a high-variability environment?

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Iterative

D.

Incremental

What tern describes an intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component?

A.

Preventive action

B.

Corrective action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Updates

The handoff of the first version of a software application to the operational team has taken a month longer than anticipated. How could this extended transition time have been avoided?

A.

If the end-user documentation was more thorough

B.

If the operations manager was invited to all sprint reviews

C.

If the operation team members were trained externally

D.

If the transition process was agreed upon during the build

What should be the frequency for meetings when transitioning from Scrum to Kanban?

A.

Weekly

B.

Daily

C.

When required

D.

Monthly

A project is at risk of delivering the solution late because of poor quality that prevents the user acceptance testing (UAT) from being finalized. The product owner does not want to sign off until all the Severity 1 (S1) defects are fixed. What should the project manager do to manage this risk?

A.

Create a risk in the risk register for each S1 defect and assign actions.

B.

Consult the risk register and implement the risk response actions.

C.

Ask the developers to work longer hours and resolve the defects.

D.

Review the organizational chart to find out who else can sign off UAT.

Which sentence summarizes the salience model?

A.

Classifies stakeholders based on assessment ol Iheir power, urgency and legitimacy

B.

A chart in which the Stakeholders are ropiosented as dots according to then level ol power and influence

C.

A three-dimensional model that ran be useful to engage the stakeholder community

D.

Classifies stakeholders and the project toam by the impact of their work in the project

A company is moving from a predictive to an adaptive approach. How should the company now translate the already planned work breakdown structure (WBS) to adaptive iterations?

A.

Create a product backlog with the information depicted in the WBS and prioritize the newly developed user stories into iterations.

B.

Accept this limitation and perform accordingly since the WBS can only be used in Scrum iterations.

C.

Consider reforming the structure of the company first as it is difficult for a company to transition from predictive to adaptive methods.

D.

Save the WBS in the historical data as the information can only be used for educational purposes and not as inputs for creating user stories.

In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements

A.

Metrics

B.

Sprint

C.

Charter

D.

Backlog i

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?

A.

Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and ream skills

B.

Data analysis, audits, and decision making

C.

Expert judgement, audits, and decision making

D.

Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment

A project manager has reached an agreement on the requirements and now needs to define the workflow for the end user. A critical step must be completed and validated by the end user before proceeding.

Which modeling tool best describes this process?

A.

Traceability

B.

User interface design

C.

Use case

D.

Wireframe

Following a project planning meeting with the team, a few team members approach the project manager to follow up on actions required. How can the project manager assess the effectiveness of the meeting?

A.

Consult the communications management plan to determine the success criteria for meetings.

B.

Review the actions from the meeting with each of the project team members to ensure their understanding.

C.

Send the meeting minutes to all team members to verify that the required information is readily available.

D.

Ask the team members to provide feedback for meetings in the phase retrospective.

Based on a previous project that has been completed, a project manager decides the best way to estimate costs is through historical data. What kind of estimating is this?

A.

Parametric

B.

Bottom-up

C.

Three-point

D.

Analogous

The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should plan the project manager consult?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan

Which is a method of prototyping that creates a functioning representation of the final finished product to the user?

A.

Low-fidelity prototyping

B.

High-fidelity prototyping

C.

Data prototyping

D.

Report prototyping

What does leadership involve?

A.

Working with others through discussion or debate to guide them from one point to another

B.

Directing another person from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors

C.

Working with a person using expert judgment to develop the technical deliverables

D.

Directing another person to develop the necessary expertise to establish technical deliverables

What is the Project Schedule Management practice used to deliver incremental value to the customer'?

A.

Resource optimization

B.

Iterative scheduling with a backlog

C.

On-demand scheduling

D.

Critical path method

In a demonstration meeting with a customer, the project team presented deliverables that were considered ready for customer use. The team based the results on a checklist of all the required criteria for the project.

Which of the following elements is the team using?

A.

Definition of ready (DoR)

B.

Burndown chart

C.

Backlog refinement

D.

Definition of done (DoD)

Which behavior relates to team leadership'?

A.

Centering on systems and structure

B.

Providing guidance using the power of relationships

C.

Accepting the status quo

D.

Focusing on operational issues and problem solving

After defining activities in project schedule management, which processes should a project manager follow?

A.

Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Estimate Activity Durations and Control Schedule

C.

Develop Schedule and Control schedule

D.

Review Activities and Develop Schedule

An adaptive team schedules 20 story points in the upcoming sprint. Historically, the team completes 25 story points on average per sprint. Each sprint is two weeks, and there is one day of float. What is the likelihood the team will complete all 20 story points in the upcoming sprint?

A.

75-100%

B.

0-25%

C.

25-50%

D.

50-75%

Match the life cycle type to when its requirements are defined.

An adaptive team schedules 20 story points in the upcoming sprint. Historically, the team completes 25 story points on average per sprint. Each sprint is two weeks, and there is one day of float.

What is the likelihood the team will complete all 20 story points in the upcoming sprint?

A.

75-100%

B.

50-75%

C.

0-25%

D.

25-50%

During a sprint demo, the customer says that one of the user stories is not ready for customer use. Which checklist should the team look at to find out what has been missed for the user story?

A.

Definition of done (DoD)

B.

Burndown chart

C.

Velocity chart

D.

Definition of ready (DoR)

A team member, who is close to an influential stakeholder, has joined the project team. The stakeholder is routing requests for multiple reports through the new team member, and the team member reaches out to the project manager regarding this. What should the project manager do first?

A.

Forward the status reports to the stakeholder.

B.

Manage stakeholder engagement.

C.

Consult the communications management plan.

D.

Update the communications management plan.

Project managers plan a key role performing integration on the project what are the three different levels of integration?

A.

Process, cognitive

B.

Complexity, understand and change

C.

Interact, insight and leadership

D.

Communication, knowledge and value

What purpose does the hierarchical focus of stakeholder communications serve?

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the focus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

What key component of the project charter defines the conditions for dosing a project phase?

A.

Purpose

B.

Approval requirements

C.

Exit criteria

D.

High-level requirements

Perform Quantitative Analysis focuses on:

A.

compiling a lsit of known risks and preparing responses to them

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and impact for every risk in the risk register

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project's time and cost objectives

The project manager is new to the company in order to effectively manage the project, which components of the organizational governance framework does the project manager need to take into account?

A.

Organizational structure type, Key stakeholders, and protect funds

B.

Rules. policies and norms

C.

Project management software, resources availability and risk checklist

D.

Governance elements, team policies, and organizational goals

Leadership and management are often used interchangeably. Which of the following is leadership more involved in?

A.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using authoritarian power

B.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using positional power

C.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using relational power

D.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using autocratic power

What organizational process asset (OPA) can impact a project?

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Preapproved supplier lists

C.

Physical environmental elements

D.

Legal restrictions

A product owner reviews the list of stakeholders to confirm their continued involvement with the product team. A new stakeholder is identified as actively involved in the next product release.

What should the project manager do next to engage the new stakeholder?

A.

Add the stakeholder to the communications management plan.

B.

Conduct a one-on-one interview with the stakeholder.

C.

Invite the stakeholder to the sprint-planning meeting.

D.

Send the stakeholder a questionnaire.

Which are required to create the schedule management plan?

A.

Scope baseline, work breakdown structure (WBS), estimated costs, and milestone list

B.

Resource management plan, organizational process assets, activity list, and business case

C.

Enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project charter, and project management plan

D.

Activity list, project statement of work, project charter, and communications management plan