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PMI CAPM - Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

Page: 5 / 8
Total 1337 questions

Which of the in an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager?

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

On which type of project.... only after the final iteration?

On wtiich type of project lite cycle is ihe deliverable produced trough a series of ileralrons considering thai the deliverable ts completed only after the Imal iteration?

A.

Incremental life cycle

B.

Predictive life cycle

C.

Iterative life cycle

D.

Adaptive life cycle

The activity tailoring is necessary because:

A.

the members of the project team need to select the appropriate order of every tool, technique, input, and output listed in the PMBOK Guide, this is required for all projects

B.

each project is unique, and the members of the project team should select the appropriate tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs from the PMBOK Guide

C.

the members of the project team need to understand the PMBOK Guide processes, which are applied to all projects

D.

each project is unique, and the project team must plain how to apply all the tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs in the PMBOK Guide

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

A.

Formal

B.

Informal

C.

Horizontal

D.

Unofficial

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Project scope statement.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Requirements traceability matrix.

An important project stakeholder has low risk tolerance. Which type ot communication should a project manager use to provide this stakeholder with a difficult update?

A.

Informal conversation

B.

Face-to-face meeting

C.

Short email update

D.

Written report

How can a project manager ensure effective project stakeholder engagement?

A.

Build a stakeholder responsibility matrix

B.

Hold weekly project staff meetings

C.

Improve interpersonal and team leadership skills

D.

Create detailed project reports for stakeholders

A project manager needs to develop a product roadmap. Which artifact category is a product roadmap?

A.

Report artifact

B.

Strategic artifact

C.

Baseline artifact

D.

Plan artifact

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

A.

Product analysis.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

Document analysis,

D.

Decomposition.

A project team is starting to work on a project based on a Kanban approach. In order to frame the capacity of the team ' s workflow at any moment, the project manager will need to restrict the maximum amount of activities to be performed.

Which element will the project manager handle?

A.

Capacity limit

B.

Pull system

C.

Work in progress

D.

Virtual board

Which process is engaged when a proiect learn inember makes a change to project budget with the project manager ' s approval?

A.

Manage Cost Plan

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

What CPI > 1 and SPI < 1 mean?

A.

Under budget ahead of schedule

B.

Over budget, behind schedule

C.

Under budget, behind schedule

D.

Over budget, ahead of schedule

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

What does ’verified’ in verified deliverable represent?

A.

The correctness of a deliverable

B.

The completeness of a deliverable

C.

The deliverable requirements

D.

The customer acceptance of a deliverable

An output of Control Schedule is:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

The project team of a predictive project is following the requirements traceability matrix to ensure the deliverables align with customer expectations. If the project had been an adaptive project, the project team would use a different artifact to ensure the deliverables align with customer expectations. What should the project team use in an adaptive project?

A.

Business case

B.

Product backlog

C.

Milestone list

D.

Product management plan

What method for categorizing stakeholders is suitable for small projects with simple relationships among stakeholders ' ?

A.

Prioritization

B.

Directions of influence

C.

Salience model

D.

Power/influence grid

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

What benefit does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process offer?

A.

Allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders

B.

Maintains or increases the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its environment changes

C.

Provides an actionable plan to interact effectively with stakeholders

D.

Enables the project team to identify the appropriate focus for engagement of each stakeholder or group of stakeholders

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Where are key project deliverables documented?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

User acceptance criteria

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

A project team is reviewing project performance. During the execution phase, the project team discovers that there is an off-the-shelf (OTS) product, which could reduce the timeline for development.

What should the project manager do next?

A.

Update the project management plan.

B.

Add the discovery to the assumptions.

C.

Evaluate the risk with the project team.

D.

Conduct an opportunity analysis with the team.

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:

A.

Resource calendar.

B.

Project organization chart.

C.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).

A project manager is leading a technology project that is about to enter the execution phase. The project requires the procurement of certain key components from an external vendor. The project manager has been notified that because of a government regulation, some parts can no longer be used in the country and the vendor will be unable to deliver them.

What should the project manager do?

A.

Identify the impact and follow the procurement plan.

B.

Identify the impact and follow the project management plan.

C.

Identify the impact and follow the risk management plan.

D.

Identify the impact and follow the change control plan.

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

An adaptive project manager is handling a five-sprint cycle to deliver a minimum viable product (MVP). After the third sprint, the productivity of the team drops to 30% due to a change in the way the team operates.

Which of the following changes has caused this loss in productivity?

A.

Two of the team members have been working in silos using different methods to validate their performance.

B.

The team velocity was measured in the third sprint since the tool to measure velocity was introduced only in the third sprint.

C.

The team picked up technical debt items in the third sprint as technical debt can only be picked up after completing two sprints.

D.

Two of the team members were asked to do multitasking, which they did not do in the previous two sprints.

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project management office?

A.

It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.

B.

It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.

C.

The project management office can execute administrative tasks.

D.

The project management office can coordinate projects.

What are the objectives of Initiation processes?

A.

Initiation processes are performed in order to develop the project charier and Identify stakeholders.

B.

Initiation processes are performed in order to obtain budget approval for a project or phase and approve scope with customers.

C.

Initiation processes are performed to identify business objectives for a project or phase and identify stakeholders ' goals.

D.

Initiation processes are performed to map initial requirements for a project or phase and prioritize them with stakeholders.

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

What process in Project Schedule Management identifies and documents specific actions to be performed to produce a project’s deliverables?

A.

Plan Schedule Management

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Durations

What is the total float of the critical path?

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

What is a key benefit of using virtual project teams?

A.

Ensures appropriate behavior, security, and the protection of proprietary information

B.

Reduces the risk of conflict due to interpersonal communications and other interactions

C.

Assures that all team members have a clear and common understanding of the project

D.

Reduces project cost by use of modern technologies allowing seamless team collaboration

A business analyst sent multiple meeting requests via instant message to a subject matter expert (SME) working in another country but did not receive a response. What should the business analyst do to reduce the likelihood of this occurring in the future with other stakeholders distributed across multiple locations?

A.

Ask each stakeholder for their preferred communication method.

B.

Confirm the time zone and work days in each location.

C.

Check with the IT department to see if there is a technical issue.

D.

Assume the meeting request is accepted unless declined.

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses