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PMI CAPM - Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

Page: 6 / 8
Total 1320 questions

Which of the following are components of the project management plan?

A.

Scope management plan, scope baseline, risk management plan, and configuration managemet plan

B.

Scope management plan, issue log, risk register and project schedule network diagram

C.

Scope management plan, schedule baseline, milestone list, and assumption log

D.

Scope management plan, cost estimates, duration estimates, and resource calenders

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

A.

0.03

B.

0.06

C.

0.10

D.

0.50

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

A.

Co-location

B.

Lite-cycle

C.

Diversity

D.

Management

During a kickoff meeting, the project sponsor presents a very ambitious project. Unfortunately, the stakeholders are not very excited as the work associated with the new project seems inefficient.

What could be missing from the business case?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Approval from the stakeholders

C.

Feasibility study of the solution

D.

Root cause analysis of the problem

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

A.

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

An organization ' s project management office (PMO) has issued guidelines that require a specific template to be used for onboarding resources for a project. Where can the project manager find this template?

A.

Organizational systems access

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Resources management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

How can a project manager maintain the engagement of stakeholders in a project with a high degree of change?

A.

Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plans

B.

Send all project documents to stakeholders each time they are modified

C.

Schedule monthly meetings with the stakeholders, including team members

D.

Engage only with the project sponsors

In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Which three of the following are key traits of a project leader? (Choose three)

A.

Rely on control.

B.

Focus on near-team goals.

C.

Convey trust and inspire trust in other team members.

D.

Challenge the status quo and do things differently.

E.

Focus on the horizon.

Projects programs subsidiary portfolios.... objectives refer to?

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives refers to?

A.

Operations Management

B.

Project Management

C.

Program Management

D.

Portfolio Management

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Which of the following tasks is related to perform the qualitative risk analysis process?

A.

Identify the project risks and assign a probability of occurrance

B.

Perform a sensitivity analysis to determine which risk has the most potential for impacting the project

C.

Analyze the effect of identified project risks as numerical data

D.

Prioritize each project risk and assign the probability of occurrence and impact for each one

If a project manager effectively manages project knowledge, a key benefits is that:

A.

all stakeholders have access to the same information.

B.

the project team is able to understand the project status.

C.

project stakeholders have a clear picture of the project.

D.

new knowledge is added to organizational process assets.

A project team member is estimating the cost of activity and is checking documentation from previous similar projects. Which estimation method is the project manager using to complete this task?

A.

Bottom-up estimating

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Parametric estimating

Which tool should a project manager use to calculate cost variance for a project?

A.

Contingency analysis

B.

Review lessons learned from similar projects

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Actual cost

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

On a clinical trial project, the project manager is worried about maintaining control of the project. The project manager decides to use a requirements traceability matrix.

What is the advantage of using this tool?

A.

Scope creep will be prevented.

B.

Resource allocation will be kept to a minimum.

C.

Project closure will be established.

D.

Project costs will be controlled.

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

An adaptive project manager is migrating the company ' s new website. The project manager must work with the team to invest full capacity on this project because it is the company ' s top-ranked project in the portfolio. In order to increase throughput and provide consistent delivery, the project manager needs to assign members who are currently involved with other projects.

How should the project manager assign the team members to this project?

A.

Task switching

B.

Multitasking

C.

Prediction

D.

Full allocation

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

What is a tool to improve team performance?

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-location

An adaptive team schedules 20 story points in the upcoming sprint. Historically, the team completes 25 story points on average per sprint. Each sprint is two weeks, and there is one day of float.

What is the likelihood the team will complete all 20 story points in the upcoming sprint?

A.

50-75%

B.

25-50%

C.

75-100%

D.

0-25%

Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?

A.

Project scope statement and accepted deliverables

B.

Scope baseline and project documents update

C.

Accepted deliverables and enterprise environmental factors

D.

Scope baseline and work performance information

Why is required in a project?

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so failoring is not requires.

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

A project team conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of them is working on. What type of communication is this?

A.

Informal

B.

Unofficial

C.

Formal

D.

Hierarchical

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

" Tailoring " is defined as the:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Which of the following is an example of tacit knowledge

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

A project manager is assigned to a project, and the sponsor signals to perform first actions. However, the project manager is unsure how to apply organizational resources into project activities before a formal authorization. Which document should be used in this case?

A.

Project plan

B.

Business case

C.

Budget requirement

D.

Project charter

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

What tool or technique can improve a products final characteristics?

A.

Design for X (DfX)

B.

Problem solving

C.

Process analysis

D.

Risk report

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

A.

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Which of the following is provided by the critical path method?

A.

Schedule float

B.

Earned value (EV)

C.

Total float

D.

Schedule value

Which tasks should a project manager perform in order to manage the project schedule effectively?

A.

Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Define Quality of Activities. Develop Schedule

B.

Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule. Control Schedule

C.

Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Estimate Cost of Activities. Develop Schedule

D.

Define Activities. Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations. Define Quality of Activities. Estimate Cost of Activities, Develop Schedule

What organizational process asset (OPA) might impact a project ' s outcome?

A.

Processes, polices, and procedures

B.

Legal restrictions

C.

Infrastructure, resource availability. and employee capability

D.

Financial considerations