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PMI CAPM - Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

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Total 1305 questions

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

An output of the Validate Scope process is:

A.

A requirements traceability matrix.

B.

The scope management plan.

C.

Work performance reports.

D.

Change requests.

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

A.

Project

B.

Plan

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

In a project, total float measures the:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

When is a Salience Model used?

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

Portfolio Management is management of:

A.

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

A.

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B.

Historical information and the stakeholder register.

C.

Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.

D.

Project documents and historical information.

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

What is a tool to improve team performance?

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-location

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management software

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

A.

Teaming agreements

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors