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PMI CAPM - Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

Page: 8 / 8
Total 1250 questions

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Monitor and Control Risk

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

The definition of operations is a/an:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller's

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.

Historical information,

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Corporate knowledge base.

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

A.

Transfer

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Accept

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A.

1

B.

0.4

C.

0.5

D.

0.8

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control charts

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Histogram

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Resource calendars

C.

Procurement document

D.

Independent estimates

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Develop Project Team.

D.

Acquire Project Team.

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

A.

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.