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PMI CAPM - Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

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Total 1320 questions

What estimating technique is used when there is limited information?

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Three-point estimating

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

A.

contingent risk

B.

residual risk

C.

potential risk

D.

secondary risk

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

An element of the project scope statement is:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

Which process is engaged when a proiect learn inember makes a change to project budget with the project manager ' s approval?

A.

Manage Cost Plan

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

Which of the following is a goal of the project charter?

A.

Detail requirements for the project tasks.

B.

Empower the project manager to manage the project.

C.

List all tasks the team should perform in the project.

D.

Develop a business case to support the project.

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

Which characteristic defines the Delphi technique of group decision-making?

A.

The participants must use their expertise to determine the best option.

B.

The decision is based on eliminating the options that are too expensive.

C.

The decision is based on a predefined algorithm and the highest score.

D.

The participants must create a list of options, rank them, and then vote.

A newly developed project team is working together, building trust and adjusting its work habits to support the team What stage of the Tuckman ladder does this describe?

A.

Forming

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Performing

The organization ' s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

A reward can only be effective if it is:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

What is one reason why stakeholders must be identified when performing business analysis?

A.

To identify project timelines through business reviews

B.

To allow the business analyst to determine the project budget

C.

To identify who should define the business requirements for the project

D.

To determine a cost-benefit analysis for the project

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

What behavior refers to leadership style?

A.

Do things right.

B.

Do the right things

C.

Ask how and when.

D.

Rely on control

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

Which are required to create the schedule management plan?

A.

Scope baseline, work breakdown structure (WBS), estimated costs, and milestone list

B.

Resource management plan, organizational process assets, activity list, and business case

C.

Enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project charter, and project management plan

D.

Activity list, project statement of work, project charter, and communications management plan

What does earned value (EV) measure?

A.

Budgeted work that has been completed

B.

Total costs incurred while accomplishing work

C.

Budget associated with planned work

D.

Cost efficiency of budgeted resources

The handoff of the first version of a software application to the operational team has taken a month longer than anticipated. How could this extended transition time have been avoided?

A.

If the operation team members were trained externally

B.

If the transition process was agreed upon during the build

C.

If the end-user documentation was more thorough

D.

If the operations manager was invited to all sprint reviews

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

A.

Three-point estimates

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Bottom-up estimating

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project ' s budget?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

A project manager is launching an information system to provide a lessons learned database. This action is necessary for recipients to access content at their own discretion. Which communication method is described?

A.

Push communication

B.

Pull communication

C.

Interactive communication

D.

Stakeholder communication

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

Which of the following technology platforms is most effective for sharing information when managing virtual project teams?

A.

Video conferencing

B.

Audio conferencing

C.

Shared portal

D.

Email/chat

Which knowledge area includes the processes to identify, define, and unify the various project management processes?

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Qualify Management

D.

Project Risk Management

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:

A.

compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them.

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and Impact for every risk in the risk register.

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project.

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project ' s time and cost objectives.

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Which enterprise environmental factors should be considered when creating a new procurement contract?

A.

Supply chains

B.

Trial engagements

C.

Lessons learned register

D.

Local laws and regulalk

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

A project manager is reviewing the change requests, deliverables, and the project plan in Which project management process does this review belong?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Closes Project or Phase

D.

Perform itegrated Change Control

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

A.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

B.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery time line.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

A.

Conduct Procurements.

B.

Close Procurements.

C.

Administer Procurements,

D.

Plan Procurements.

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

A.

Product release plan

B.

Project release plan

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product management plan

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven