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PMI CAPM - Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

Page: 8 / 8
Total 1305 questions

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

A.

Transfer

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Accept

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

A.

Three-point estimates

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Bottom-up estimating

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.

Historical information,

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Corporate knowledge base.

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

The definition of operations is a/an:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control charts

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Histogram

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Types of internal failure costs include:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Monitor and Control Risk

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management